Free HESI A2 Practice Test

Get ready for the 2026 HESI A2 exam by testing your skills with our free practice test.

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QUESTION COUNT:

60 Questions

TIME LIMIT:

90 Minutes

FORMAT:

Multiple Choice

About Our HESI A2 Practice Test

This HESI A2 practice test checks your understanding of the core subjects commonly covered on the exam, including math, reading comprehension, vocabulary, grammar, anatomy and physiology, biology, and chemistry, while emphasizing accuracy, time management, and the ability to apply foundational knowledge in testing scenarios.

Each question reflects common topics and question styles you may encounter on the actual HESI A2 exam in 2026. At the end of our interactive practice test, you will get a score of your performance by category, giving you the chance to assess your understanding and identify categories where you might be able to improve. All our questions and rationales have been reviewed by an experienced registered nurse (RN).

Maegan Baker, BSN, RN, CCM Avatar
Questions reviewed by
Maegan Baker, BSN, RN, CCM
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Full Question Bank & Rationales

Below, you will find the complete list of 60 questions from our HESI A2 practice test. We have included a detailed rationale for every question to help you understand the why behind the correct answer.

These questions are listed in the same order as our interactive practice test and are grouped by exam category.

Some questions are marked as Challenging. These questions are designed to be a bit harder than the rest and usually include more detailed scenarios. Use them to build confidence with tougher exam-style questions and to pinpoint which skills or concepts to revisit before test day.

Note: The answer and rationale are hidden by default. Click “Show Answer & Rationale” after you answer the question to see if you got it right.

Jump to Exam Category:

Math

1. Question

A patient is scheduled for a procedure at 1430. What time is this in standard 12-hour clock format?

  1. 2:30 AM
  2. 4:30 PM
  3. 12:30 PM
  4. 2:30 PM
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Military times of 1300 and greater represent afternoon and evening hours (PM). To convert to a standard 12-hour clock format, subtract 1200 from the military time: 1430 – 1200 = 230. Therefore, 1430 translates to 2:30 PM.

2. Question

A recipe requires 3 cups of flour to make 24 cookies. If a baker wants to make 60 cookies, how many cups of flour are needed?

  1. 6 cups
  2. 7.5 cups
  3. 8 cups
  4. 12 cups
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B

Set up a proportion comparing cups of flour to cookies: 3/24 = x/60. Cross-multiply to get 24x = 180, then divide by 24 to find x = 7.5. You can also simplify 3/24 to 1/8 first, meaning 1 cup of flour makes 8 cookies, making 60 / 8 = 7.5 an easier mental calculation.

3. Question

A medication order calls for 250 mg of a drug. The medication is available as a liquid concentration of 50 mg per 2 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

  1. 5 mL
  2. 10 mL
  3. 12.5 mL
  4. 25 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Set up a proportion where 50 mg / 2 mL = 250 mg / x mL. Cross-multiply to get 50x = 500, then divide both sides by 50 to find x = 10 mL. Choice A is a common mistake resulting from simply dividing 250 by 50, forgetting to account for the 2 mL volume in the concentration.

4. Question

Solve for x: 5/12 = 20/x

  1. 24
  2. 36
  3. 42
  4. 48
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Solve the proportion by cross-multiplying the values: 5 * x = 12 * 20, which simplifies to 5x = 240. Divide both sides by 5 to isolate x, resulting in x = 48. Alternatively, you can see that the numerator 5 was multiplied by 4 to get 20, so multiplying the denominator 12 by 4 also yields 48.

5. Question (Challenging)

A medical textbook is originally priced at $120. It is on sale for 15% off. After the discount is applied, an 8% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the final cost of the textbook?

  1. $110.16
  2. $108.00
  3. $111.60
  4. $121.60
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

First, find the discount: 15% of $120 is $18. Subtract $18 from $120 to find the sale price, which is $102. Next, calculate the 8% tax on the $102 sale price: $102 x 0.08 = $8.16. Finally, add the $8.16 tax to the $102 sale price to arrive at a final cost of $110.16. Choice C is incorrect because it mistakenly applies the 8% tax to the original $120 price rather than the discounted price.

6. Question

A patient drinks 1/3 cup of water, 1/4 cup of juice, and 1/2 cup of broth. How many total cups of fluid did the patient consume?

  1. 1 1/12
  2. 3/9
  3. 1 1/4
  4. 13/24
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

To add fractions, you must find a common denominator, which for 3, 4, and 2 is 12. Convert the fractions: 4/12 + 3/12 + 6/12 = 13/12. This is an improper fraction that simplifies to the mixed number 1 1/12. Choice B is incorrect because it mistakenly adds the numerators and denominators straight across.

7. Question (Challenging)

Evaluate the following expression: 2 1/4 ÷ 1 1/2

  1. 1 1/2
  2. 3 3/8
  3. 2/3
  4. 1 3/4
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

First, convert the mixed numbers to improper fractions: 9/4 ÷ 3/2. To divide fractions, multiply the first fraction by the reciprocal of the second: 9/4 * 2/3 = 18/12. Finally, simplify 18/12 to 3/2, which converts back to the mixed number 1 1/2. Choice B is incorrect because it represents multiplying the two mixed numbers instead of dividing them.

8. Question

What is 30% of 150?

  1. 30
  2. 45
  3. 50
  4. 450
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

To find a percentage of a number, convert the percentage to a decimal (0.30) and multiply it by the whole number. Multiplying 0.30 by 150 equals 45. Choice D is a common error caused by multiplying 150 by 3 instead of 0.30.

9. Question (Challenging)

A patient’s temperature is 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit. What is the patient’s temperature in degrees Celsius? (Formula: C = (F – 32) x 5/9)

  1. 37.5 degrees C
  2. 38.0 degrees C
  3. 38.5 degrees C
  4. 39.2 degrees C
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Plug the Fahrenheit value into the formula: C = (101.3 – 32) x 5/9. First, subtract 32 from 101.3 to get 69.3. Then, multiply 69.3 by 5 and divide by 9 (or simply divide 69.3 by 1.8), which equals 38.5 degrees Celsius. Students often select an incorrect choice if they ignore the order of operations and attempt to multiply before subtracting 32.

10. Question

Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 0.85?

  1. 17/20
  2. 8/5
  3. 3/4
  4. 85/10
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

To convert a decimal to a fraction, place the numbers after the decimal point over the corresponding place value, which gives 85/100. Divide both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common factor, 5, to simplify the fraction to 17/20. Choice D incorrectly places the value over 10 instead of 100.

11. Question

Convert the Roman numeral CXLIV to an Arabic numeral.

  1. 144
  2. 164
  3. 114
  4. 154
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Break the Roman numeral into its components: C = 100, XL = 40 (since the smaller numeral X is before the larger L, you subtract it), and IV = 4 (since I is before V, you subtract it). Adding these values together (100 + 40 + 4) equals 144. Choice B is a common mistake for test-takers who accidentally translate XL as 60 instead of 40.

12. Question

A patient weighs 72 kilograms. What is the patient’s weight in pounds? (1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds)

  1. 32.7 lbs
  2. 144.0 lbs
  3. 158.4 lbs
  4. 162.2 lbs
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

To convert kilograms to pounds, multiply the weight in kilograms by the conversion factor of 2.2. Multiplying 72 kg by 2.2 lbs/kg equals 158.4 lbs. Choice A is incorrect because it divides by 2.2 instead of multiplying, which would be the step used to convert pounds to kilograms.

Vocabulary

13. Question

The nurse warned the patient that constantly scratching the rash would exacerbate the condition. What does “exacerbate” mean?

  1. Relieve
  2. Soothe
  3. Worsen
  4. Spread
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

To “exacerbate” means to make a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling worse. Scratching a rash will aggravate it, making “worsen” the correct definition. “Spread” is a strong distractor because scratching can sometimes spread an infection, but it is not the literal definition of the vocabulary word itself.

14. Question

What is the best synonym for the word ‘cease’?

  1. Stop
  2. Pause
  3. Begin
  4. Continue
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

To “cease” means to stop or come to an end. “Pause” is a tempting distractor because it also involves halting an action, but a pause implies a temporary break rather than a complete cessation.

15. Question

Patients must strictly adhere to the prescribed medication schedule for the best outcome. What is another word for ‘adhere?’

  1. Adjust
  2. Abandon
  3. Stick
  4. Question
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

In this context, to “adhere” means to closely follow or commit to a plan or set of rules. Therefore, to “stick” to the schedule is the correct interpretation. “Adjust” is a distractor that students might choose if they assume medication schedules frequently need changing, but it contradicts the definition of adhering.

16. Question (Challenging)

The clinical trial was designed to properly test the efficacy of the new pain management protocol. Select the meaning of ‘efficacy.’

  1. Safety
  2. Cost
  3. Availability
  4. Effectiveness
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

“Efficacy” is the ability to produce a desired or intended result, especially in a medical or scientific context. Thus, “effectiveness” is the correct definition. “Safety” is an excellent distractor because clinical trials do test for safety, but safety is distinct from efficacy (how well the treatment actually works).

17. Question

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence: The dark, sudden discoloration of the wound was an ominous sign of a worsening infection.

  1. Expected
  2. Favorable
  3. Threatening
  4. Confusing
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The word “ominous” describes something that gives the impression that something bad or unpleasant is going to happen. In a clinical setting, an ominous sign is “threatening” to the patient’s health. “Expected” might tempt a student who thinks of infection progression simply as a routine clinical course, but it fails to capture the negative foreshadowing of the word.

18. Question

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence: Following a stroke, the patient exhibited flaccid muscles on the left side of his body.

  1. Limp
  2. Tense
  3. Spasmodic
  4. Swollen
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

“Flaccid” refers to body tissue or muscle that is soft, hanging loosely, or lacking firmness. “Limp” is the best synonym in this clinical context. “Swollen” is a plausible distractor because it is another common physical symptom observed in patients, but it has a completely different definition.

19. Question

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence: The patient appeared lethargic and was difficult to awaken for their morning assessment.

  1. Hostile
  2. Sluggish
  3. Agitated
  4. Alert
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The word “lethargic” refers to a state of sluggishness, drowsiness, or lack of energy. The context clue “difficult to awaken” points directly to this meaning. A student might be tempted to choose “alert” because it is a familiar clinical term related to level of consciousness, but “sluggish” is the correct synonym here.

20. Question (Challenging)

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence: The disease has an insidious onset, often progressing for years before noticeable symptoms arise.

  1. Rapid
  2. Obvious
  3. Contagious
  4. Subtle
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

“Insidious” describes something that proceeds in a gradual way that is not noticeable at first. Because the disease progresses for years before symptoms appear, “subtle” is the correct answer. “Contagious” might tempt a student because it is a common medical term related to diseases, but it does not describe the speed or visibility of onset.

21. Question

Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to ‘adept’.

Skilled
B. Clumsy
C. Rapid
D. Intelligent

Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

“Adept” means very skilled or proficient at something. The opposite of being highly skilled or graceful in a task is being “clumsy” or unskilled. A student might incorrectly choose “skilled” if they miss the prompt’s instruction to find the antonym rather than the synonym.

22. Question

Select the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence: It is imperative that the surgical instruments are sterilized before the procedure begins.

  1. Crucial
  2. Routine
  3. Suggested
  4. Preferable
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

“Imperative” means of vital importance or absolutely necessary. In a medical context, sterilizing instruments is mandatory, making “crucial” the best fit. A student might select “routine” because sterilization is a standard practice, but that choice does not capture the word’s urgent and obligatory meaning.

Reading

23. Question

Context

To function properly, the human metabolism depends on three main macronutrients: carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Carbohydrates act as the body’s chief energy source and are quickly converted into glucose. Proteins are essential for cellular repair and muscle tissue synthesis, while fats protect vital organs through insulation and help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K.

According to the passage, which macronutrient is primarily responsible for cellular repair and muscle tissue synthesis?

  1. Glucose
  2. Proteins
  3. Fats
  4. Carbohydrates
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The passage directly states that “Proteins are essential for cellular repair and muscle tissue synthesis.” Choice A may be tempting because glucose appears in the passage, but it is connected to carbohydrates and energy rather than cellular repair and muscle tissue synthesis.

24. Question

Context

During an initial clinical assessment, many patients show transient hypertension, a response often known as “white-coat syndrome.” This temporary spike in blood pressure is usually caused by anxiety connected to the medical setting rather than by an ongoing cardiovascular disorder. Providers commonly manage this by recording several readings during the appointment after the patient has had time to acclimate.

As used in the passage, the word “transient” most nearly means:

  1. dangerous
  2. permanent
  3. unpredictable
  4. temporary
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The passage identifies the condition as a “temporary spike in blood pressure,” which directly clarifies the meaning of “transient.” Choice B means the opposite. Choice A may seem appealing because hypertension can be a medical concern, but the passage stresses that this form is short-lived rather than chronic.

25. Question

Context

For many years, vaccine development often relied on weakened or inactivated versions of pathogens to trigger an immune response. Although these conventional approaches were very effective, they involved extensive production timelines and complex manufacturing facilities. The recent emergence of mRNA technology, which instructs cells to create a harmless viral protein, bypassed these logistical bottlenecks, allowing for rapid deployment during global health emergencies.

Based on the passage, what can be inferred about mRNA vaccine production compared to traditional vaccine production?

  1. AmRNA vaccines can be manufactured and deployed more quickly during a crisis.
  2. Traditional vaccines require less complex manufacturing facilities than mRNA vaccines.
  3. mRNA vaccines are more dangerous because they use active pathogens.
  4. Traditional vaccines are obsolete and no longer used in modern medicine.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage says traditional methods involved “extensive production timelines” and that mRNA technology “bypassed these logistical bottlenecks, allowing for rapid deployment.” This supports the inference that mRNA vaccines can be produced and deployed faster in emergencies. Choice B reverses the passage’s point about traditional vaccines requiring complex facilities.

26. Question

Context

Therapeutic communication is a central part of effective nursing because it depends on active listening and emotional resonance. If a nurse acknowledges a patient’s anxiety instead of brushing it aside with shallow reassurance, the patient is more likely to report important symptoms and follow treatment instructions. This baseline of trust frequently mitigates the physiological markers of stress, such as elevated heart rate and blood pressure.

Based on the passage, what can be reasonably inferred about a patient who trusts their nurse?

  1. They prefer therapeutic communication over physical examinations.
  2. They will no longer require medication to manage blood pressure.
  3. They may experience a physiological reduction in their stress levels.
  4. They will never feel anxious about their medical treatment.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The passage explains that trust can “mitigate the physiological markers of stress, such as elevated heart rate and blood pressure,” which supports the idea that stress may decrease physically. Choice D is too extreme because the passage does not claim that a patient will “never feel anxious.”

27. Question

Context

Maintaining proper hydration is essential for optimal cellular activity and body temperature regulation. In hospital settings, fluid balance is carefully observed because dehydration can worsen existing conditions and substantially slow the healing of wounds. Nurses regularly monitor fluid intake and output to help patients remain in equilibrium, particularly when patients cannot drink fluids without assistance.

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

  1. Proper hydration is vital for health, requiring nursing staff to carefully monitor patient fluid balance.
  2. Tracking fluid intake is the most time-consuming task a nurse performs daily.
  3. Hospitalized patients should only drink water to prevent dehydration.
  4. Dehydration is the primary cause of delayed wound healing in surgical wards.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage first explains the importance of hydration for bodily processes and wound healing, then describes how nurses manage it by monitoring fluid balance. Choice A captures both major points. Choice C is too absolute because of the phrase “only drink water,” while Choice D exaggerates a supporting detail by presenting dehydration as the “primary” cause of delayed healing.

28. Question (Challenging)

Context

Regular cardiovascular exercise produces significant physiological changes. The myocardium, or heart muscle, develops hypertrophy, which raises stroke volume and enables the heart to move more blood with each beat. By improving efficiency in this way, the resting heart rate decreases, lessening the total workload placed on the cardiovascular system during periods of stasis.

As used in the passage, the word “stasis” most nearly means:

  1. psychological stress
  2. rapid movement
  3. high-intensity exercise
  4. inactivity or rest
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The passage links the heart’s improved efficiency to a lower “resting” heart rate, so “stasis” refers to times when the body is inactive or at rest. Choice C is an opposite-meaning distractor that may appeal to students who focus only on the exercise theme.

29. Question

Context

Nurse burnout is strongly associated with high nurse-to-patient ratios and long 12-hour shifts. Facilities that require overtime often experience a steep rise in turnover rates during employees’ first year. In contrast, hospitals that offer self-scheduling and peer support groups tend to report sustained high levels of employee retention and patient satisfaction.

Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?

  1. Peer support groups are only effective when combined with mandatory overtime.
  2. 12-hour shifts should be entirely replaced with 8-hour shifts to prevent turnover.
  3. Nursing burnout can be completely eliminated through self-scheduling alone.
  4. Hospital administrative policies directly impact both nurse retention and patient satisfaction.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The passage compares negative results linked to required overtime with positive results linked to self-scheduling and peer support. This contrast supports the conclusion that administrative choices affect both nurse retention and patient satisfaction. Choice C goes too far because the passage does not say self-scheduling alone can fully eliminate burnout.

30. Question

Context

For nurses, ergonomic injuries—especially lower back strains—are a major workplace risk. Studies show that using mechanical patient-lift devices rather than moving patients manually greatly decreases the mechanical stress placed on a caregiver’s lumbar spine. Consequently, many healthcare facilities have instituted “no-lift” policies to mandate the use of assist technologies during patient repositioning.

According to the passage, how do healthcare facilities attempt to reduce lower back strains among nurses?

  1. By replacing all standard hospital beds with ergonomic models.
  2. By implementing “no-lift” policies that mandate mechanical assist devices.
  3. By requiring nurses to complete mandatory physical therapy sessions.
  4. By hiring extra staff dedicated exclusively to lifting patients.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The passage directly says that healthcare facilities have “instituted ‘no-lift’ policies to mandate the use of assist technologies.” Choice B restates that detail accurately. Choices C, D, and A may sound realistic, but they are not included in the passage.

31. Question

Context

Health literacy (the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information) strongly predicts overall health outcomes. Individuals with limited health literacy often have difficulty moving through complex medical systems, interpreting prescription labels, or managing chronic illnesses. For this reason, healthcare providers must use universal communication precautions, including the “teach-back” method, to confirm that every patient understands their care plan regardless of education level.

Which sentence best summarizes the main idea of the passage?

  1. Low health literacy is the sole reason why patients struggle to manage chronic conditions.
  2. The “teach-back” method is the most difficult communication strategy for healthcare providers to learn.
  3. Because health literacy significantly influences health outcomes, providers should use universal communication strategies.
  4. Navigating complex medical systems requires patients to have advanced degrees in science.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Choice C includes the passage’s central problem, that health literacy affects health outcomes, as well as its recommendation that providers use universal communication strategies. Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not describe low health literacy as the “sole” cause of difficulty managing chronic conditions.

32. Question (Challenging)

Context

Even though clinical diagnostic tools have improved widely, systemic disparities in pain management still influence minority patient demographics. Research shows that providers often undervalue subjective pain reports because of implicit biases, resulting in lower rates of analgesic prescriptions. To reduce this inequity, nursing curricula must integrate rigorous cultural competency training that forces students to confront their own subconscious assumptions before entering clinical practice.

What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this passage?

  1. To highlight disparities in pain management and advocate for cultural competency training in nursing education.
  2. To criticize medical schools for neglecting basic pharmacology instruction.
  3. To argue that objective diagnostic tools should completely replace subjective pain scales.
  4. To demonstrate that minority patients experience higher pain thresholds than other groups.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage begins by presenting a systemic problem involving biased pain management and ends by recommending cultural competency training as a solution. Choice A reflects both the problem and the proposed response. Choice C misreads the mention of diagnostic tools, and Choice D introduces an unsupported claim about pain thresholds.

Grammar

33. Question

Which of the following is a run-on sentence?

  1. The patient complained of a headache; the nurse checked his blood pressure.
  2. The clinic closes at five o’clock, so we need to hurry.
  3. The patient complained of a headache, the nurse checked his blood pressure.
  4. Because the patient complained of a headache, the nurse checked his blood pressure.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Sentence C is a run-on sentence, specifically a comma splice, because it improperly joins two independent clauses with only a comma. Distractor A might tempt students who are unfamiliar with semicolons, making them incorrectly assume it is a punctuation error rather than a perfectly valid way to connect two independent clauses.

34. Question (Challenging)

Which sentence is grammatically correct?

  1. Rushing to the emergency room, the nurse dropped the chart.
  2. The nurse dropped the chart rushing to the emergency room.
  3. Rushed to the emergency room, the nurse dropped the chart.
  4. Rushing to the emergency room, the chart was dropped by the nurse.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The introductory modifier “Rushing to the emergency room” must immediately precede the noun it modifies, which is “the nurse.” Distractor D is a classic dangling modifier; it makes logical sense at first glance, but grammatically implies that “the chart” was rushing to the emergency room.

35. Question

Which sentence demonstrates correct parallel structure?

  1. The duties of a medical assistant include to record vital signs, drawing blood, and scheduling appointments.
  2. The duties of a medical assistant include recording vital signs, to draw blood, and scheduling appointments.
  3. The duties of a medical assistant include recording vital signs, drawing blood, and to schedule appointments.
  4. The duties of a medical assistant include recording vital signs, drawing blood, and scheduling appointments.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

All items in a list or series should be in the same grammatical form (in this case, gerunds ending in “-ing”: recording, drawing, scheduling). Distractor C is tempting because the first two items are parallel, making the reader easily gloss over the mismatched infinitive (“to schedule”) at the end of the list.

36. Question

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: ‘The hospital requires all staff members to update ______ emergency contact information annually’.

  1. their
  2. its
  3. his
  4. her
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The antecedent in the sentence is “staff members,” which is plural, requiring the plural pronoun “their.” Distractor B (“its”) might tempt a student who incorrectly links the pronoun back to the singular noun “hospital” rather than the actual antecedent, “staff members.”

37. Question (Challenging)

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: ‘The charge nurse asked Sarah and ______ to review the patient’s chart before the shift change’.

  1. myself
  2. I
  3. mine
  4. me
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The pronoun acts as part of the direct object of the verb “asked,” so it must be in the objective case (“me”). Distractor B (“I”) is a very common hypercorrection; students often mistakenly believe that “Sarah and I” is always the correct phrasing regardless of its function in the sentence.

38. Question

Which sentence is grammatically correct?

  1. The box of sterile syringes is on the top shelf.
  2. The box of sterile syringe are on the top shelf.
  3. The box of sterile syringes are on the top shelf.
  4. The boxes of sterile syringes is on the top shelf.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The subject of the sentence is “box,” which is singular, so it requires the singular verb “is.” Distractor C is tempting because the plural noun “syringes” is located right next to the verb, leading students to mistakenly choose the plural verb “are.”

39. Question

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

  1. The physician prescribed an antibiotic but, she did not provide pain medication.
  2. The physician prescribed an antibiotic, but, she did not provide pain medication.
  3. The physician prescribed an antibiotic, but she did not provide pain medication.
  4. The physician prescribed an antibiotic but she did not provide pain medication.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

When coordinating conjunctions (like “but”) join two independent clauses, a comma must be placed immediately before the conjunction. Distractor D is a very common mistake, as many students forget to use a comma when separating two complete thoughts with a conjunction.

40. Question

Which sentence has correct capitalization?

  1. The doctor told nurse Smith to administer the Medication.
  2. The Doctor told Nurse Smith to administer the Medication.
  3. The Doctor told nurse Smith to administer the medication.
  4. The doctor told Nurse Smith to administer the medication.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Professional titles are capitalized when they immediately precede a name (Nurse Smith), but they are lowercased when used as a general noun (the doctor). Distractor B is a common error, as students often capitalize medical titles like “doctor” or “nurse” out of respect, even when they do not accompany a proper name.

41. Question

Which sentence is grammatically correct?

  1. After the patient eats dinner, he went to sleep.
  2. After the patient ate dinner, he went to sleep.
  3. After the patient eating dinner, he went to sleep.
  4. After the patient ate dinner, he goes to sleep.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

This sentence maintains a consistent past tense throughout (“ate” and “went”). Distractors A and D are incorrect because they inappropriately mix past and present tenses, which is a common error students make when writing complex sentences.

42. Question

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: ‘The side ______ of the medication include dizziness and nausea’.

  1. affect
  2. affects
  3. effect
  4. effects
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The sentence requires a noun meaning “results or consequences,” which is “effects,” and it must be plural to agree with the plural verb “include.” Distractor B (“affects”) is highly tempting because “affect” and “effect” are commonly confused, but “affect” is typically used as a verb meaning “to influence.”

Anatomy & Physiology

43. Question

During the process of swallowing, which of the following structures closes over the glottis to prevent food and liquid from entering the respiratory tract?

  1. Larynx
  2. Pharynx
  3. Uvula
  4. Epiglottis
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The epiglottis is a flap of cartilage that folds downward to cover the glottis during swallowing, protecting the airway. The uvula (C) also plays a role in swallowing by moving upward to prevent food from entering the nasal cavity, making it a tricky but incorrect distractor.

44. Question

Which of the following structures is considered the basic functional unit of the kidney, responsible for filtering blood and forming urine?

  1. Nephron
  2. Ureter
  3. Glomerulus
  4. Renal pelvis
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The nephron is the microscopic structural and functional unit of the kidney where filtration, reabsorption, and secretion occur. The glomerulus (C) is a tempting distractor because it is a key capillary bed involved in the filtration process, but it is merely a component of the larger nephron.

45. Question

Which of the following types of white blood cells is typically the most abundant in circulation and the first to arrive at a site of acute bacterial infection?

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Basophils
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Neutrophils are highly mobile phagocytic leukocytes that rapidly migrate to areas of acute inflammation and are primarily effective against bacterial invaders. Lymphocytes (A) are often incorrectly chosen because they are central to the immune system, but they are generally involved in later, specific adaptive immune responses rather than immediate, innate responses.

46. Question

Blood returning from the body must pass through which structure before entering the right ventricle?

  1. Pulmonary artery
  2. Aorta
  3. Right atrium
  4. Left atrium
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Blood returning from the body (deoxygenated blood) enters the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava and flows into the right atrium before moving into the right ventricle. The pulmonary artery (A) is a strong distractor because it is involved in the flow of deoxygenated blood. However, the pulmonary artery carries blood away from the right ventricle to the lungs, not into the heart.

47. Question

What is the outermost layer of the human skin, which serves as a protective barrier against environmental pathogens?

  1. Hypodermis
  2. Epidermis
  3. Subcutaneous layer
  4. Dermis
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The epidermis is the superficial, avascular layer of the skin that provides the body’s first line of physical defense. The dermis (D) is the thicker layer directly beneath it, containing blood vessels, follicles, and nerves, making it a common distractor for those confusing skin anatomy layers.

48. Question (Challenging)

A mid-cycle surge in which of the following anterior pituitary hormones directly triggers the release of an egg from the ovary (ovulation)?

  1. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
  2. Estrogen
  3. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  4. Progesterone
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

A spike in luteinizing hormone (LH) is the primary physiological trigger for the rupture of the ovarian follicle and the subsequent release of the egg. Follicle-stimulating hormone (C) is a very strong distractor because it matures the follicle prior to ovulation, but it is the LH surge that actually causes the egg’s release.

49. Question (Challenging)

Damage to which of the following areas of the brain would most likely result in immediate, life-threatening disruptions to heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing?

Cerebrum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. Hypothalamus

Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The medulla oblongata, located in the lower brainstem, contains vital centers that control autonomic, life-sustaining functions, including cardiovascular and respiratory regulation. The hypothalamus (D) is a strong distractor because it also regulates autonomic functions and homeostasis, but the medulla contains the direct centers for immediate cardiac and respiratory drive.

50. Question

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for transmitting sensations of touch, pain, and temperature from the face?

  1. Vagus (CN X)
  2. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  3. Facial (CN VII)
  4. Trigeminal (CN V)
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is the primary sensory nerve of the face, carrying sensations of touch, pain, and temperature. Students may incorrectly assume (C) as an obvious choice, but the facial nerve’s primary function is controlling facial movement.

51. Question

During skeletal muscle contraction, what is the specific role of calcium ions?

  1. To provide the chemical energy needed for cross-bridge detachment
  2. To bind to myosin heads, causing the power stroke
  3. To bind to troponin, exposing myosin-binding sites on actin
  4. To act as a neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to the regulatory protein troponin, which shifts tropomyosin away from the binding sites on the actin filament, allowing contraction to proceed. Students often incorrectly select ATP’s role (A) or confuse calcium’s action directly with myosin (B).

52. Question

In which of the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract does the vast majority of nutrient absorption occur?

  1. Jejunum
  2. Large intestine
  3. Duodenum
  4. Stomach
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

While digestion begins in the mouth and stomach, and the duodenum receives bile to break down fats, the jejunum is the primary site for the absorption of sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids into the bloodstream. The stomach (D) is often incorrectly chosen by students who confuse the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food with the actual absorption of nutrients.

53. Question

Which of the following glands is responsible for the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water balance in the body?

  1. Adrenal cortex
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Posterior pituitary
  4. Anterior pituitary
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and is stored and released into the bloodstream by the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary (D) is a common distractor because it releases many other major hormones, but it does not secrete ADH.

54. Question

Which of the following types of bone cells is primarily responsible for the resorption and breakdown of bone tissue?

  1. Osteocytes
  2. Osteoclasts
  3. Osteoblasts
  4. Osteons
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells that dissolve bone matrix, a crucial step in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation. Osteoblasts (C) are a frequent trap because the prefixes are identical, but osteoblasts are responsible for building or forming new bone, not breaking it down.

Biology

55. Question (Challenging)

In a certain species of plant, tall height (T) is dominant over short height (t). If two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, what is the probability that their offspring will exhibit the short phenotype?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

A cross between two heterozygotes (Tt x Tt) results in a genotypic ratio of 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt, meaning there is a 1 in 4 chance of producing homozygous recessive offspring. Because the short phenotype is recessive, it will only be expressed in the tt genotype, which equates to 25%. A common distractor is 50% (B), which students might mistakenly select if they confuse the percentage of heterozygous offspring with the percentage of the recessive phenotype.

56. Question

Which of the following organelles is primarily responsible for the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in eukaryotic cells?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Mitochondrion
  3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Golgi apparatus
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The mitochondrion is known as the powerhouse of the cell, as it is responsible for generating most of the cell’s supply of ATP through the process of cellular respiration. A student might be tempted by the ribosome (A) if they confuse energy production with synthesis, but ribosomes are specifically dedicated to synthesizing proteins, not ATP.

57. Question

The plasma membrane is composed of a bilayer of molecules that have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. Which of the following biomolecules makes up the majority of this bilayer?

  1. Phospholipids
  2. Monosaccharides
  3. Triglycerides
  4. Polypeptides
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The cell membrane is primarily composed of a phospholipid bilayer, which forms a semipermeable barrier due to its hydrophilic (water-attracting) heads and hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails. A student might choose triglycerides (C) knowing they are also lipid molecules, but triglycerides function primarily in energy storage rather than structural membrane formation.

Chemistry

58. Question (Challenging)

Which of the following compounds is formed primarily through ionic bonding?

  1. CO₂ (Carbon dioxide)
  2. H₂O (Water)
  3. NaCl (Sodium chloride)
  4. CH₄ (Methane)
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Ionic bonds generally form when electrons are transferred between a metal and a nonmetal, which creates oppositely charged ions that attract each other, as seen with sodium (metal) and chlorine (nonmetal). Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between nonmetals, which is the case for carbon dioxide, water, and methane. A student might be tempted by B because water has highly polar properties and is a universal solvent, but the hydrogen-oxygen bonds themselves are covalent, not ionic.

59. Question

Which of the following pH values indicates the strongest acid?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 11
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The pH scale measures how acidic or basic a substance is on a scale from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral. Values below 7 indicate acidity, and the lower the number, the stronger the acid. A student might be tempted to choose D if they mistakenly equate a higher number with a higher strength, but a pH of 11 indicates a strong base, not an acid.

60. Question

Carbon-14 is an isotope of carbon, which has an atomic number of 6. How many protons and neutrons does a single atom of Carbon-14 contain?

  1. 6 protons and 6 neutrons
  2. 6 protons and 8 neutrons
  3. 8 protons and 6 neutrons
  4. 14 protons and 6 neutrons
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The atomic number of an element determines its number of protons, meaning carbon always has 6 protons regardless of the isotope. The mass number (14) represents the total sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus; subtracting the 6 protons leaves 8 neutrons. A student might choose A if they assume the number of protons and neutrons must always be equal, which is true for the more common Carbon-12 isotope but not for Carbon-14.

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