CNA exam preparation

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Free CNA Practice Test

Get ready for the 2026 CNA exam by testing your skills with our free practice test.

  • 100% Free. No Email Required
  • Aligned with the current NNAAP® exam format
  • Answer and explanation after every question
Start Practice Test Try 5 Tricky Exam Questions
CNA student practices measuring blood pressure on a training mannequin while an instructor observes.
Question count
60 Questions
Time limit
90 Minutes
Format
Multiple Choice

About This CNA Practice Test

Practice essential CNA exam topics, including personal care, basic nursing skills, communication, and residents’ rights. Review the answer and explanation after each question.

Your results, explained

Know what to study next.

At the end of the test, you’ll receive a category performance report showing how you scored in each topic area. See your strengths, spot areas that need more practice, and focus your next study session.

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Will this help me prepare for my state’s CNA exam?

Yes—this practice test helps you review core CNA knowledge tested across states, including safety, infection control, personal care, and residents’ rights. Exam formats and requirements vary, so use it alongside your provider’s official candidate handbook and hands-on skills practice.

Select the state where you plan to test to find your exam provider, testing guidance, and official resources.

Browse all states

Alabama

Exam provider: Credentia (NNAAP); Prometric through approved facilities

Credentia offers Alabama nurse aide testing. Prometric is also approved to administer the CNA exam in nursing homes or qualified facilities. Confirm your testing route with your program or facility and review that provider's candidate handbook.

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Arizona

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Arkansas

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

California

Exam provider: Credentia; D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster; Regional Testing Center

CDPH lists Credentia, Headmaster and the Regional Testing Center as approved CNA testing vendors. Use CDPH's complete vendor list for official contacts and scheduling links, and review your chosen vendor's current instructions.

Provider information verified: .

District of Columbia

Exam provider: Credentia and Headmaster both publish DC testing pages

Needs confirmation: The reviewed provider pages overlap. The applicable provider and any transition arrangements have not been confirmed.

Ask your training program or DC nurse aide program which provider is accepting your application before paying exam fees.

Provider verification pending. Sources checked: .

Idaho

Exam provider: Prometric (written/knowledge examination)

Use Prometric's Idaho bulletin for the knowledge exam. Confirm skills evaluation arrangements with your training program; the linked Prometric page identifies its service as the written/knowledge examination.

Provider information verified: .

Illinois

Exam provider: Southern Illinois University Carbondale / Illinois Nurse Aide Testing

Use the Illinois Nurse Aide Testing site to identify your eligibility route and access the INACE examination process. Follow the instructions for your training or recertification route.

Provider information verified: .

Iowa

Exam provider: Headmaster or Credentia (knowledge); community colleges or Health Tech Associates (skills)

Take Headmaster's knowledge exam at an Iowa community college or remotely; Headmaster handles registration, payment and records. Credentia also offers remote knowledge testing. Arrange skills testing separately with a community college or Health Tech Associates; college skills testing is managed by the college, not Headmaster or Credentia.

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Kansas

Exam provider: Kansas Department for Aging and Disability Services (KDADS), through listed test sites

Use KDADS' nurse aide exam test-site list and application materials. Ask your program which listed site will administer your state examination.

Provider information verified: .

Kentucky

Exam provider: Kentucky Community and Technical College System (KCTCS), using Headmaster/TMU

Use the Kentucky SRNA testing procedures and study guide linked from the testing page. Contact KCTCS for your testing arrangements.

Provider information verified: .

Maine

Exam provider: Testing provider not confirmed

Needs confirmation: The reviewed state sources explain competency testing but do not identify a single statewide exam vendor.

Maine describes a written or oral examination plus a skills demonstration. Contact your approved training program or the Maine CNA Registry for current test arrangements.

Provider verification pending. Sources checked: .

Maryland

Exam provider: Credentia; Headmaster (additional CNA-I testing vendor)

The Maryland Board of Nursing confirms that Headmaster is fully operational as an additional CNA-I testing vendor alongside Credentia, serving approved CNA-I training programs. Coordinate testing with your program and follow your selected vendor's instructions.

Provider information verified: .

Massachusetts

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Michigan

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Minnesota

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Mississippi

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Missouri

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Montana

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Nevada

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

New Mexico

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

North Dakota

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Ohio

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Oklahoma

Exam provider: Prometric; Oklahoma CareerTech Health Certification Project; Headmaster for LTC/HHA deeming

Oklahoma testing routes vary by aide category. Use the state registry guidance and confirm the appropriate written and skills testing route with your training program before applying.

Provider information verified: .

Oregon

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

South Dakota

Exam provider: Headmaster (knowledge examination)

Headmaster's South Dakota service is listed as nurse aide knowledge testing. Ask your approved training program about the required skills evaluation and how to arrange each component.

Provider information verified: .

Utah

Exam provider: Utah Nursing Assistant Registry (UNAR), through its testing sites

UNAR works with independent testing sites. Check the site instructions for knowledge and skills appointments; most scheduling is through TMU after training and payment.

Provider information verified: .

Washington

Exam provider: Approved Washington programs or WABON-scheduled sites (skills); Credentia (written/oral)

Graduates of approved Washington programs: get a Credentia Candidate ID, then arrange skills testing with your program if it offers testing, or through WABON's scheduling process. After passing skills, register with Credentia for the written or oral exam.

Provider information verified: .

Wisconsin

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Wyoming

Exam provider: D&S Diversified Technologies / Headmaster

Use the current state candidate handbook to prepare for knowledge and skills testing. Follow the application and scheduling instructions on the official testing page.

Provider information verified: .

Topics covered

Credentia, Prometric, and Headmaster cover similar CNA topics, but questions and topic emphasis vary.

Timing & requirements

Question counts, time limits, and passing requirements vary by state and provider. Check your candidate handbook.

Knowledge & skills

Practice questions prepare you for the knowledge test. You’ll also need hands-on skills practice.

CNA skills test guide
Start Practice Test Read the FAQs

Free CNA Practice Tests by Topic

Choose a topic to review, or use your category performance report to focus on areas that need practice. Each free test includes 25 questions.

60 CNA Practice Questions with Answers

Review all 60 questions from our practice test at your own pace, grouped into nine exam categories. Each question includes an explanation to help you understand the correct answer.

Try each question before opening “Answer & Explanation.” Questions marked Challenging offer more complex scenarios. For extra practice, follow the link to a topic-specific test in each category.

Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Activities of Daily Living practice exam.

1. A patient with a weak right arm needs help with putting on a shirt. What’s the right approach?

  1. Put the shirt on the left arm first, then the right arm.
  2. Put the shirt on the right arm first, then the left arm.
  3. Put both arms in at the same time.
  4. It doesn’t matter which arm goes in first.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

The recommended approach is to dress the weaker side first. This helps prevent injury and makes the task easier and less painful for the resident.

2. An alert resident needs help eating in bed and can tolerate sitting upright. Which position should the CNA use during the meal?

  1. Upright, with the head of the bed raised to approximately 90°.
  2. Reclined, with the head of the bed raised to approximately 45°.
  3. Flat on the back, with a pillow beneath the head.
  4. Reclined, with the head tilted backward.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

An upright position helps reduce aspiration risk during feeding. Position the resident as close to 90° as tolerated and follow the care plan. If the prescribed position cannot be tolerated, ask the nurse before feeding.

3. A CNA is assisting a resident with a transfer from the bed to a wheelchair. Where should the CNA position the wheelchair?

  1. On the resident’s weaker side.
  2. On the resident’s stronger side.
  3. At the foot of the bed.
  4. On the opposite side of the bed.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Positioning the wheelchair on the resident’s stronger side lets them use their strength to assist with the transfer, making the transfer easier and safer.

4. When helping a resident put on non-slip socks, where should the tread be?

  1. On top of the foot.
  2. On the bottom of the foot.
  3. On the sides of the foot.
  4. On the heel only.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

The non-slip tread must contact the floor to reduce slip risk. It is designed to provide traction and prevent slipping when the resident is standing or ambulating.

Challenging

5. A resident with lung disease (COPD) gets short of breath easily while taking a shower. What is the safest way for the CNA to assist them?

  1. Shower the resident very quickly to get it over with.
  2. Have the resident stand up to help them breathe better.
  3. Turn the water temperature up high to open their airways.
  4. Use a shower chair so the resident can sit down while washing.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Standing requires more energy and oxygen than sitting. Using a shower chair helps the resident conserve energy and prevents falls caused by dizziness or shortness of breath.

6. When preparing bath water for a resident, the proper temperature range is approximately:

  1. 100–105°F (38–40.5°C)
  2. 90–95°F (32–35°C)
  3. 115–120°F (46–48°C)
  4. As hot as the resident can tolerate.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

Bath water should be warm enough to be comfortable but not so hot as to cause burns, especially in residents with decreased sensation. The appropriate temperature is generally 100-105 degrees F. Always follow facility policy and test the water before helping the resident.

7. When a CNA encourages a resident to do a task they can manage, such as brushing their teeth, this mainly promotes:

  1. Denial of assistance.
  2. Learned helplessness.
  3. Independence and self-esteem.
  4. Staff shortcuts.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

The goal of restorative care is to have the resident do as much as they safely can to maintain or regain independence, which supports self-esteem and functional recovery.

8. While assisting a resident with denture care, the CNA observes that the resident’s dentures are cracked. What is the best course of action?

  1. Report the damage to the nurse and do not use the dentures.
  2. Apply a denture adhesive to fix the crack.
  3. Schedule an appointment for the resident with a dentist.
  4. Clean them carefully and place them back in the resident’s mouth.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

CNAs should not attempt to repair medical devices. Damaged dentures can injure the resident’s mouth or gums. The issue must be reported to the nurse so a repair or replacement can be arranged.

9. A CNA is performing oral care for an unconscious resident. Which position is most appropriate to prevent aspiration?

  1. Supine with the head flat.
  2. Lateral position with the head turned to the side.
  3. High-Fowler’s position with the neck extended.
  4. Semi-Fowler’s position.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Unconscious residents cannot swallow and are at high risk for aspiration (inhaling fluid into the lungs). Placing them in a lateral position (side-lying) with the head turned to the side allows fluids to drain out of the mouth safely.

Challenging

10. A resident has mild mouth soreness from treatment. The nurse has assessed the mouth, and the care plan allows gentle toothbrushing as tolerated. What should the CNA use to clean the resident’s teeth?

  1. A firm-bristled toothbrush to remove plaque thoroughly.
  2. Alcohol-containing mouthwash instead of toothbrushing.
  3. A soft-bristled toothbrush used gently.
  4. A foam swab instead of toothbrushing at every cleaning.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

A soft-bristled toothbrush removes plaque while minimizing irritation when used gently. Foam swabs do not clean teeth as effectively and should not routinely replace brushing. Follow the oral-care plan, and stop and notify the nurse if brushing causes pain or bleeding.

11. A resident’s swallowing plan specifies mildly thick liquids and no straw. At lunch, the resident requests thin water and says, “I drank it yesterday without coughing.” What should the CNA do?

  1. Give thin water in small sips because the resident did not cough previously.
  2. Offer the prescribed liquid without a straw and tell the nurse about the resident’s request.
  3. Make the liquid as thick as possible for additional protection.
  4. Give thin water through a straw so the resident can control each sip.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

The CNA must follow the current swallowing plan unless the appropriate clinician changes it. Absence of coughing does not prove that swallowing is safe because aspiration can occur silently. Do not independently change the consistency or use of a straw. Report the resident’s request so the nurse can arrange follow-up if needed.

12. Which of the following is an example of an Instrumental Activity of Daily Living (IADL) that the CNA might assist the resident with?

  1. Assisting the resident to the toilet.
  2. Obtaining the resident’s weight.
  3. Picking out the resident’s clothing for the day.
  4. Filing and organizing the resident’s mail.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs) include complex tasks that require cognitive function and planning beyond the basics of eating, toileting, and grooming (ADLs). Helping the resident organize and file their mail is an IADL.

13. The CNA is assisting a resident on a full liquid diet eat breakfast. Which of the following items would need to be removed from their tray?

  1. Scrambled eggs.
  2. A protein shake.
  3. Coffee.
  4. Yogurt.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature, such as Jell-O, yogurt, juices, shakes, and ice cream. Anything that requires chewing, such as eggs, is not a part of a full liquid diet.

Back to categories

Basic Nursing Skills

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Basic Nursing Skills practice exam.

14. When counting a resident’s breaths, what is the best practice to ensure an accurate count?

  1. Tell the resident you are counting their breaths.
  2. Use a timer and count for 30 seconds, then multiply by 2.
  3. Count the breaths while holding their wrist.
  4. Count the breaths while the resident is sleeping.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

To get the most accurate results, count respirations immediately after taking the pulse, while still holding the resident’s wrist, which helps prevent the resident from changing their breathing pattern. Count for a full 60 seconds, especially if the pattern is irregular.

Challenging

15. A resident has orthostatic hypotension, which means their blood pressure drops when they stand up. What should the CNA do before assisting this resident with walking?

  1. Perform passive range of motion exercises while lying in bed.
  2. Have the resident sit on the side of the bed for a minute or two before standing.
  3. Give the resident a glass of orange juice.
  4. Have the resident stand up quickly and hold onto a walker to get the blood flowing.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Dangling the legs allows the body to adjust to the change in position and helps stabilize blood pressure. This prevents dizziness and fainting when the resident stands up.

16. A resident at risk for pressure injuries uses a pressure-redistributing mattress. The resident asks not to be awakened for scheduled repositioning during the night. What should the CNA do?

  1. Allow the resident to remain in one position throughout the night.
  2. Discontinue scheduled repositioning because the mattress redistributes pressure.
  3. Reposition the resident more frequently than directed without consulting the nurse.
  4. Offer repositioning according to the care plan, respect any refusal, and report the resident’s request to the nurse.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Repositioning should follow the resident’s individualized care plan. A pressure-redistributing mattress does not automatically replace repositioning. The resident may refuse care, but the CNA should not independently change the schedule. Report and document the refusal according to facility procedure so the nurse can assess whether the plan should be revised.

17. What is the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?

  1. Proper hand hygiene.
  2. Wearing a mask.
  3. Using sterile gloves.
  4. Isolating the patient.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

The CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) and other health organizations recommend proper handwashing as the most effective measure to the spread of germs in healthcare settings.

18. A resident is a known fall risk. What is the best action the CNA can take to ensure their safety?

  1. Apply soft restraints to the resident.
  2. Keep the call light within the resident’s reach.
  3. Keep the lights in the room on at all times.
  4. Remove the resident’s shoes and socks.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Keeping the call light within reach allows the resident to ask for help when needed, making it less likely that they will attempt to get up on their own and fall.

19. A care task requires a gown, surgical mask, goggles, and gloves. After performing hand hygiene, in what order should the CNA put on this personal protective equipment?

  1. Gloves, gown, mask, goggles.
  2. Gown, gloves, mask, goggles.
  3. Mask, goggles, gloves, gown.
  4. Gown, mask, goggles, gloves.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Put on the gown first, followed by the mask, goggles, and gloves. Gloves go on last and extend over the gown cuffs. Required PPE depends on the precautions and anticipated exposure; contact precautions alone do not automatically require a mask and goggles.

Challenging

20. During a Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile) outbreak, a CNA finishes caring for an infected resident and removes their gloves. Which hand-hygiene method should the CNA use?

  1. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer alone.
  2. Washing with soap and running water.
  3. No hand hygiene because gloves were worn.
  4. Wiping the hands with a dry paper towel.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

During a C. difficile outbreak, soap-and-water handwashing is recommended after care because washing helps physically remove spores. Alcohol-based sanitizer does not reliably inactivate C. difficile spores, and wearing gloves does not replace hand hygiene.

21. A CNA notices a small red area on a resident’s lower back. What should the CNA do first?

  1. Rub the area to improve circulation.
  2. Apply a bandage to the area.
  3. Tell the resident to avoid lying on their back.
  4. Immediately report the finding to the nurse.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

The red area could be the first sign of a pressure ulcer. The CNA should report their observation to the nurse immediately so it can be assessed and a plan for preventive measures can be implemented. Rubbing the area could cause further damage.

22. A CNA is preparing to measure a resident’s blood pressure. The resident asks why the cuff cannot be placed over their sweater. What is the correct explanation?

  1. It is hospital policy that all blood pressure readings are taken on bare skin.
  2. Clothing under the cuff can cause an inaccurate reading.
  3. The stethoscope cannot transmit the pulse through the material.
  4. The cuff will slip off if placed on fabric.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Blood pressure cuffs must be applied to bare skin. Clothing underneath the cuff can interfere with the sound transmission and add bulk, leading to an inaccurate reading (usually higher than the actual BP).

23. A responsive adult resident has a confirmed severe airway obstruction and cannot speak, breathe, or cough effectively. Another staff member is activating the emergency response system. The resident is not pregnant, and the CNA can encircle the resident’s abdomen. What should the CNA, who is trained in choking first aid, do?

  1. Give five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts, repeating as needed.
  2. Give abdominal thrusts only until the obstruction clears.
  3. Begin CPR immediately while the resident remains responsive.
  4. Perform a blind finger sweep to remove the obstruction.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

Alternate five back blows with five abdominal thrusts until the obstruction clears or the resident becomes unresponsive. If the resident becomes unresponsive, safely lower them to a firm, flat surface and begin CPR according to training, starting with compressions. Do not perform blind finger sweeps.

24. A resident is on a bladder retraining program. The resident asks for the bedpan 30 minutes before the scheduled time. How should the CNA respond?

  1. Ask the resident to try to hold it for 15 more minutes.
  2. Tell the resident they must wait for the scheduled time.
  3. Assist the resident to use the bedpan immediately.
  4. Put a brief on the resident in case of an accident and try to distract them.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

While bladder retraining involves a schedule, a CNA should never force a resident to hold their urine if they have the urge to go. The goal is to gradually lengthen intervals, but withholding toileting can lead to incontinence or urinary tract infections. The CNA should assist them and document the time.

Challenging

25. A resident receives oxygen continuously through a nasal cannula. Where is the most common place for skin breakdown to occur?

  1. Behind the resident’s ears.
  2. On the resident’s forehead.
  3. On the resident’s chest.
  4. Around the resident’s mouth.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

The plastic tubing of the nasal cannula wraps around the ears. Constant pressure and friction in this area can easily cause sores or skin breakdown, so the CNA must check behind the ears regularly.

26. When collecting a 24-hour urine specimen, what should the CNA do with the very first void of the day?

  1. Save half of it for comparison.
  2. Collect it and start the timing.
  3. Send it to the lab for analysis.
  4. Discard it and begin the timing immediately after.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

A 24-hour urine collection begins with an empty bladder. The first void is discarded (flushed), and the time is noted. All subsequent urine samples over the next 24 hours are collected.

27. The CNA is applying anti-embolism stockings (TED hose) to a resident. What is the correct first step?

  1. Place the stocking around the calf and roll it down.
  2. Ensure there are no wrinkles or twists in the stocking.
  3. Turn the stocking inside out to the heel marker.
  4. Apply lotion to the legs before putting them on.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

TED hose are very tight in order to prevent blood clots in the legs. To make the application easier, turn the stocking inside out to the point of the heel, then slide it over the toes, foot, and heel, making sure it is in the correct position. Gently pull the stocking up the rest of the leg, smoothing out any wrinkles.

28. A CNA notices a fire in a wastebasket in a resident’s room. Following the RACE acronym, what should the CNA do after removing the resident from the immediate area of danger?

  1. Act scared and alert the rest of the facility.
  2. Aim a fire extinguisher at the base of the fire.
  3. Assemble a barrier to contain the fire.
  4. Activate the fire alarm.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

RACE stands for Remove, Activate, Contain, Extinguish. After removing (or rescuing) anyone in immediate danger, the next action is to activate the fire alarm or call 911.

29. The CNA is performing perineal care on a female resident who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which action does the CNA perform correctly?

  1. Using a new section of washcloth with each stroke.
  2. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage bag before washing the area.
  3. Only using warm water, not soap, to clean around the catheter.
  4. Scrubbing the catheter tubing to remove any buildup.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

When performing perineal care on a resident with a urinary catheter, the CNA should use warm water, an unscented soap, and a new section of the washcloth with each stroke, cleaning from front (the urethra) to back and from the insertion site downwards several inches to prevent introducing bacteria into the urethra.

30. A CNA needs to measure the height of a bedbound resident who cannot stand. What is the correct method?

  1. Ask the resident their height and record it.
  2. Measure the length of the mattress and subtract the empty space.
  3. Measure from the shoulder to the heel and add 10 inches.
  4. Use a tape measure with the resident lying flat in bed.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

For bedbound residents, height is measured using a tape measure. The resident should be supine (flat), and the measurement is taken from the crown of the head to the sole of the heel.

31. Which of the following factors may result in an inaccurate pulse oximetry reading?

  1. The resident has warm hands.
  2. The resident is wearing artificial nails.
  3. The resident is sitting upright.
  4. The oximeter is placed on the index finger.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Pulse oximeters use light to measure oxygen saturation. Dark nail polish or artificial nails can block the light sensor, leading to a false reading. The CNA should remove the polish or use an alternative site (such as an earlobe) if permitted.

32. A CNA is assigned to obtain a sputum specimen. What is the best time of day to collect this specimen?

  1. Right before bedtime.
  2. Immediately after lunch.
  3. Early in the morning, before breakfast.
  4. Before the resident takes their daily medications.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

Sputum (mucus from the lungs) accumulates during sleep. The best sample is obtained early in the morning upon waking, before the resident eats or drinks, to ensure the sample is from the lungs and not contaminated by food.

33. The CNA is documenting the resident’s liquid intake from lunch. The resident consumed 1 cup of chicken broth and 4 oz of apple juice. The CNA correctly documents this as:

  1. 360 mL.
  2. 240 mL.
  3. 450 mL.
  4. 400 mL.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

To document fluid intake accurately, the CNA must convert cups to ounces and ounces to milliliters. 1 cup = 8 oz. 1 oz = 30 mL. Therefore, the resident consumed 12 oz (360 mL) of liquids.

Back to categories

Restorative Skills

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Restorative Skills practice exam.

34. While assisting a resident with ambulation, where should the CNA stand?

  1. Directly in front of the resident.
  2. Slightly behind and to the side of the resident, using a gait belt.
  3. Directly behind the resident, holding their clothing.
  4. Several steps away, encouraging them to walk faster.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

For safe ambulation, the CNA should walk slightly behind and to one side, holding the gait belt, to be in the optimal position to support balance and prevent a forward or sideways fall.

Challenging

35. A resident has weakness in their hip, and the leg tends to turn outward when they are lying in bed. What simple device can be used to keep the leg straight?

  1. A trochanter roll placed against the hip/thigh.
  2. A brace applied to the knee.
  3. A footboard placed at the bottom of the bed.
  4. A foam wedge tucked under the buttocks.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

A trochanter roll (usually a rolled towel) acts as a wedge to prevent the hip and leg from turning outward (external rotation). This helps maintain proper alignment.

36. For a resident on restorative bladder training, what is the main purpose of the call light?

  1. To keep a record of how often they need to void.
  2. To allow the resident to promptly request assistance when they need to go to the bathroom.
  3. To notify the staff when they have finished the toileting activities.
  4. To help the resident perform perineal care.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Bladder training often uses scheduled toileting, but the call light is essential so the resident can request help immediately when feeling the urge, which is essential for the success of the training program.

37. When the CNA assists moving a resident’s joint through its full range of motion without the resident’s help, what is this action called?

  1. Passive Range of Motion (PROM)
  2. Active Range of Motion (AROM)
  3. Passive Ambulation (PA)
  4. Active Assisted Range of Motion (AAROM)
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

PROM is performed by the CNA when the resident cannot actively move the joint themselves. The CNA moves the joint through its full range to help it maintain mobility and prevent stiffness or contractures.

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Emotional and Mental Health Needs

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Emotional and Mental Health Needs practice exam.

38. A resident with a terminal illness tearfully tells the CNA they are afraid of dying. What is the best response for the CNA?

  1. Changing the subject to something cheerful.
  2. Offer a hug and say not to worry because the doctors will help.
  3. Listen, acknowledge the feelings, offer comfort, and report the emotional distress to the nurse.
  4. Share or lecture about personal religious beliefs.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

CNAs should provide emotional support by listening without judgment, validating feelings, and offering appropriate comfort, then report the spiritual/emotional distress to the nurse, who can involve social work or other support.

39. When a resident is experiencing a catastrophic reaction (an overreaction to a minor event), what should the CNA do first?

  1. Yell at the resident to calm down.
  2. Leave the resident alone until they calm down.
  3. Stay calm, use a reassuring tone, and guide the resident away from the trigger to a quieter, safe area.
  4. Restrain the resident immediately for their safety.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

The key to managing a catastrophic reaction is to remain calm and reduce or remove the trigger, by guiding the resident to a quieter environment and offering reassurance. This way the resident can regain control.

Challenging

40. A resident with PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder) is sleeping. The CNA needs to wake them up. What is the best approach?

  1. Knock on the door, approach from the front, and speak softly before touching them.
  2. Touch the resident’s arm gently before speaking.
  3. Stand behind the resident and speak loudly.
  4. Turn on the television or radio very loudly first.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

Residents with PTSD may be easily startled or react defensively if touched unexpectedly or approached from behind (blind spot). Using your voice first helps orient them and reduces fear.

41. A resident begins expressing a paranoid delusion (e.g., “My food is poisoned”). How should the CNA respond?

  1. “We would never poison your food.”
  2. “Everyone else is eating, so it must be fine.”
  3. “I’ll tell staff to only bring you packaged food.”
  4. “That must make you feel scared. Would you like me to bring you something else?”
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

CNAs should not argue with or validate a delusion. Instead, acknowledge the resident’s feelings (e.g., fear) and offer a practical alternative or distraction. Afterward, report the behavior to the nurse for assessment and follow-up.

42. A resident who recently had a stroke looks at their nonfunctional right arm, says “I can’t use it anymore,” and begins to cry. This is most likely an example of:

  1. Denial (the first stage of grief).
  2. Depression or grief related to loss of function.
  3. Anger (the second stage of grief).
  4. Sundowning.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

Grief is a natural process following any major loss, including the loss of function or independence after a stroke. Crying due to this loss indicates depression or sadness related to that loss and not denial or sundowning.

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Spiritual and Cultural Needs

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Spiritual and Cultural Needs practice exam.

43. A resident requests to pray five times daily and to face Mecca during prayer. What is the best action for the CNA?

  1. Tell the resident they can only pray during scheduled activity time.
  2. Help the resident find a private, safe space and assist with locating the direction of Mecca.
  3. Ask the resident to wait until the CNA’s shift is over.
  4. Tell the resident that religious practices cannot be accommodated for everyone.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

The CNA’s role is to respect and accommodate the resident’s religious practices, as long as they do not conflict with immediate medical care.

44. A Jewish resident refuses a lunch tray because it contains pork. What is the best action for the CNA?

  1. Explain that the pork is part of the facility’s standard menu.
  2. Tell the resident that pork is a part of their prescribed diet.
  3. Offer to swap the pork item for another resident’s food.
  4. Notify the nurse or kitchen staff to request a kosher-compliant alternative.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Religious dietary laws (like avoiding pork, keeping kosher, or fasting) must always be respected and accommodated. The CNA should coordinate with the nurse and kitchen to provide an appropriate alternative consistent with the resident’s religious needs.

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Communication

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Communication practice exam.

Challenging

45. A resident has slurred speech after a stroke but understands everything you say. What is the best way to communicate with them?

  1. Pretend you understand even if you don’t.
  2. Speak louder so they can hear you better.
  3. Ask “yes” or “no” questions to make it easier for them to answer.
  4. Have the resident respond using only gestures.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

If a resident understands but cannot speak clearly, asking yes/no questions allows them to communicate their needs effectively without the frustration of trying to form complex sentences.

46. What is the best way to communicate with a resident who has a hearing impairment?

  1. Speak loudly and quickly.
  2. Stand behind the resident so they can hear you better.
  3. Face the resident and speak slowly and clearly.
  4. Use hand gestures without speaking.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

Facing the resident and speaking slowly and clearly allows them to read your lips and see your facial expressions, which helps them understand you better.

47. A resident has limited English proficiency (LEP), and the CNA cannot obtain necessary information. What is the CNA’s first action?

  1. Contact the facility’s qualified interpreter service (in-person/phone/video)
  2. Ask a family member to interpret.
  3. Speak more loudly and slowly.
  4. Use gestures or a picture board to complete the assessment.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

A qualified interpreter ensures accurate, confidential communication for safety, consent, and care planning.

48. What is the best way for a CNA to verify that a resident understands a procedure before it is performed?

  1. Ask the resident if they have any questions.
  2. Have the resident confirm that they understand.
  3. Just start the procedure and explain as it is performed.
  4. Ask the resident to repeat the instructions back in their own words.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

The “teach-back” method helps with comprehension because the resident has to verbalize the instructions in their own words, rather than just answering yes or no.

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Client Rights

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Client Rights practice exam.

49. What is the primary role of the long-term care ombudsman?

  1. Provide medical treatment to residents.
  2. Administer medications.
  3. Advocate for the rights of residents.
  4. Supervise CNAs.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

An ombudsman is a third-party advocate who works to protect the rights of residents in long-term care facilities and address any concerns or complaints they might have.

Challenging

50. A resident on a pureed diet due to dysphagia demands a regular hamburger. The CNA knows a hamburger could cause the resident to choke. What should the CNA do?

  1. Explain the risk and report the resident’s refusal to the nurse immediately.
  2. Give the resident the hamburger because they have the right to choose.
  3. Mash the hamburger up with a fork and hope it is soft enough.
  4. Refuse the request and tell the resident to eat the pureed food.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

While residents have rights, the CNA cannot perform an action known to be unsafe (such as serving a choking hazard). The correct action is to report the situation to the nurse, who can handle the “informed refusal” process or offer a safe alternative.

51. If a competent resident refuses a bath, what should the CNA do?

  1. Force the resident to take a bath anyway.
  2. Threaten to call the resident’s family.
  3. Tell the resident they can’t have lunch until they agree to bathe.
  4. Respect the refusal, notify the nurse, and document it.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

A competent resident has the right to refuse treatment and personal care. The CNA should respect the refusal, document it and report it to the nurse.

52. Before beginning any procedure on a resident, what must the CNA do?

  1. Check the resident’s blood pressure.
  2. Put on a mask.
  3. Ask a coworker to assist.
  4. Explain the procedure and get the resident’s consent.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Obtaining verbal permission, or consent, is a fundamental resident right. Performing care without consent can constitute battery. If the resident refuses, respect the refusal and report it to the nurse.

53. A regular visitor tells the CNA that she is the resident’s niece and asks whether the resident has received a particular diagnosis. The resident is not present, and the CNA cannot confirm what information the resident has permitted staff to share. What is the best response?

  1. Confirm only whether the diagnosis is present but provide no treatment details.
  2. Protect the resident’s information and refer the request to the nurse.
  3. Ask the visitor to show identification and then disclose the diagnosis.
  4. Reassure the visitor that the resident has not received any serious diagnosis.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: B

A visitor’s identity or relationship does not by itself establish what health information may be shared. The CNA should neither confirm nor deny the diagnosis. Protect the resident’s confidentiality and refer the request to the nurse so the resident’s permission or another permitted basis for disclosure can be verified.

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If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Legal and Ethical Behavior practice exam.

54. A CNA sees a coworker remove a resident’s meal tray and water after the resident refuses a bath. The coworker says the items will be returned when the resident cooperates. What should the CNA do?

  1. Wait until the meal period ends and then document what occurred.
  2. Correct the coworker privately but report the incident only if it happens again.
  3. Ask the resident whether they want to file a grievance before taking action.
  4. Take immediate steps to protect the resident and report the incident through the required process.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Withholding necessary food or water as punishment is abuse and requires an immediate response. Protect the resident, notify the nurse or appropriate supervisor at once, and follow facility and legal reporting requirements. Document factual observations, but do not delay reporting to question witnesses or investigate independently.

Challenging

55. A CNA attaches a tray table to a resident’s wheelchair so the resident cannot get up. The resident is unable to remove the table themselves. This is considered:

  1. A positioning aid.
  2. A safety device.
  3. A physical restraint.
  4. A distraction technique.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

Any device that restricts a resident’s movement and cannot be easily removed by the resident is legally defined as a physical restraint. Restraints can only be used with a doctor’s order and for specific medical reasons.

56. Leaving a confused resident who is a known fall risk unattended in the bathroom is best described as:

  1. Assault.
  2. False imprisonment.
  3. Negligence.
  4. Defamation.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

Negligence is failing to provide the level of care that a reasonable professional would provide, thereby creating a foreseeable risk of harm. Leaving a vulnerable resident in an unsafe situation meets this definition.

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Member of the Health Care Team

If you’d like to test your knowledge further in this category, check out our free Member of the Health Care Team practice exam.

57. A resident is upset and demands to see the facility administrator immediately. What is the CNA’s best action?

  1. Attempt to solve the problem directly or notify the nurse.
  2. Tell the resident to calm down and wait until tomorrow.
  3. Threaten to restrain the resident if they don’t stop shouting.
  4. Ignore the resident because it’s not a CNA concern.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

Residents have the right to voice complaints without reprisal. The CNA should listen, try to resolve simple immediate issues, and follow the chain of command so the resident’s request to speak with appropriate authority is addressed.

58. A CNA is asked to perform a task that is outside their scope of practice. What should the CNA do?

  1. Perform the task anyway to be helpful.
  2. Ask a coworker to perform the task for them.
  3. Refuse the task and report the request to a supervisor.
  4. Offer to do another task instead.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: C

CNAs must know and stay within their scope of practice. Doing a task the CNA is not trained to do is illegal and could harm the resident. The CNA must decline and inform a supervisor.

59. What is the purpose of a resident’s care plan?

  1. To outline the exact needs and goals for the resident’s care.
  2. To give the CNA a list of tasks for the day.
  3. To provide a schedule for family visits.
  4. To list the resident’s favorite foods.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: A

A resident’s care plan is a document that guides the care team on the specific needs and health goals and specifies any interventions that are required to meet those.

Challenging

60. A resident and their daughter are viewing the resident’s laboratory results in the patient portal. The resident has asked the daughter to participate in the conversation. The daughter points to a result marked “abnormal” and asks the CNA, “Does this mean the treatment is failing?” What is the best response?

  1. Explain that an abnormal result means the treatment is not working.
  2. Read the portal’s reference range and let them determine what the result means.
  3. Refuse to involve the daughter because written authorization has not been provided.
  4. Acknowledge their concern and ask the nurse to explain the clinical meaning of the result.
Answer & Explanation

Correct answer: D

Interpreting a laboratory result or deciding whether treatment is effective requires clinical judgment beyond the CNA’s role. The CNA should acknowledge the concern and refer the question to the nurse or appropriate clinician. The resident’s permission allows the daughter to participate, but it does not authorize the CNA to interpret the result.

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Frequently Asked Questions

Get practical help with choosing between similar answers, applying CNA care principles, and turning your practice-test results into a study plan.

How do I choose between two CNA answers that both seem correct?

Identify what the question asks: the first action, the best response, or an action the CNA should avoid. Then look for the detail that changes the decision, such as a care-plan instruction, a resident’s refusal, or an immediate safety concern. An action may be appropriate later without being the right next step.

For example, question 16 in Basic Nursing Skills involves a resident who refuses nighttime repositioning. Following the schedule alone does not address the refusal, and simply abandoning the schedule does not address the care need. The answer must account for the care plan, the resident’s choice, and reporting to the nurse. Read every part of each option before choosing.

How can I tell whether an answer goes beyond the CNA’s role?

Distinguish observing and reporting from interpreting findings or changing treatment. A CNA can describe what they see and hear, provide assigned care within their training, and report concerns. An answer that asks the CNA to diagnose a problem, interpret a laboratory result, or independently change a prescribed care plan crosses that boundary.

In question 60 in Member of the Health Care Team, the family asks whether an abnormal lab result means treatment is failing. The appropriate response acknowledges the concern and asks the nurse to explain the result. The key is the clinical interpretation being requested, even though the resident has agreed to include the daughter in the conversation.

What should I look for in questions about a resident refusing care?

Look for an answer that respects the refusal while addressing the care need. Do not assume that a scheduled task permits forcing, threatening, or punishing a resident. Reporting a refusal also does not mean independently canceling the care plan.

In a routine care scenario, explain what you are offering, listen to the resident’s concern, and report and document the refusal according to facility procedure. Practice recognizing these distinctions in Client Rights and Legal and Ethical Behavior. The Texas HHS resident-rights training explains the right to refuse care and participate in care decisions.

When should the CNA help with a task instead of encouraging independence?

Use the resident’s abilities and care-plan instructions in the question. Support the parts of a task the resident can safely do, and provide the assistance they need. Doing everything for someone because it is faster can take away opportunities to maintain function; leaving someone to struggle with a task they cannot safely manage is not promoting independence.

For a dressing or grooming question, ask: What can this resident do safely, and what help is specified? Apply that distinction to the questions in Activities of Daily Living and Restorative Skills.

How should I approach communication questions when a resident has difficulty speaking?

Separate difficulty expressing words from difficulty understanding them. In a question that states the resident understands speech but has trouble responding, choose a way to help them communicate rather than assuming they cannot understand or speaking only to someone else.

Question 45 in Communication illustrates this: simple yes-or-no questions can help a resident with slurred speech express a need. Speaking louder does not address the stated problem. Use the specific communication barrier described in the question to guide your answer.

What infection-control mistakes should I watch for in CNA questions?

Follow what the hands, gloves, and equipment touch. An answer can sound efficient while carrying contamination to a clean task or another resident. Gloves do not replace hand hygiene: clean hands after removing them, and change gloves and clean hands when moving from a soiled body site to a clean one, even on the same resident.

Also notice the setting. For example, visibly soiled hands call for soap and water; alcohol-based hand sanitizer is preferred in most routine clinical situations when hands are not visibly soiled. Review CDC’s hand-hygiene guidance, then use our CNA infection control practice test for more practice with PPE, hand hygiene, and preventing contamination.

How should I review a missed question so I do not repeat the mistake?

Before opening Answer & Explanation in the question bank, state why you chose your answer. Then make a short note with three parts:

  1. The clue I missed: the detail in the scenario that changes the answer.
  2. The principle to remember: for example, follow the prescribed swallowing plan rather than changing liquid consistency yourself.
  3. Why my option was wrong: explain the unsafe action, missed step, or assumption.

Revisit the question later and explain the decision without relying on the answer letter. Review correct guesses this way too; a correct selection does not always mean you understood the reasoning.

How do I use my category performance report to decide what to study next?

Start with a weak category and review the actual mistakes, not just the percentage. Look for a repeated issue, such as confusing observation with interpretation or overlooking a resident’s right to choose. Then use the matching free CNA practice test by topic to practice that skill with more questions.

Treat small categories cautiously. Our test has only two Spiritual and Cultural Needs questions, so one missed answer changes that category score by 50 percentage points. A small sample is a reason to investigate, not a complete measure of your knowledge. After focused review, return to our full CNA practice test to practice switching between topics.

Does a high practice-test score mean I am ready for the CNA exam?

A high score is encouraging, but it is more useful when you can explain your answers without notes and apply the same principles to unfamiliar scenarios. Repeating the same 60 questions can improve your score through recognition, so also use topic-specific practice tests and review answers you guessed.

Do not treat a particular percentage on this practice test as an official passing score or a guarantee of passing. Use your state’s exam resources to check the current candidate handbook, exam outline, timing, and passing requirements. Prepare separately for the hands-on skills evaluation.

How is the NNAAP® written exam divided by topic?

Credentia’s published NNAAP® content outline lists the following distribution for the exam’s 60 scored questions. The written exam also includes 10 unscored pretest questions, making 70 questions in total.

TopicScored questions
Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)13
Basic Nursing Skills21
Self-Care and Independence (Restorative Skills)4
Emotional and Mental Health Needs5
Spiritual and Cultural Needs1
Communication4
Client Rights5
Legal and Ethical Behavior3
Member of the Health Care Team4
Total60

Our 60-question practice test covers the same topic areas, with a slightly different distribution: 20 Basic Nursing Skills questions and two Spiritual and Cultural Needs questions. The remaining category counts match the outline above.

Other testing providers may use different exam outlines. Check your state’s current candidate handbook for the requirements that apply to you.

Source: Credentia’s NNAAP® Written (Oral) Examination Content Outline.

Can practice questions prepare me for the CNA skills evaluation?

They can reinforce why a care step matters, but selecting an answer does not demonstrate that you can perform the skill. Pair question practice with supervised hands-on practice, using your provider’s current skills checklist and your instructor’s feedback.

Pay attention to the required sequence, safety steps, communication, and measurements as you practice. Use our CNA skills test guide as a starting point, and find the official checklist through your state’s exam resources. The number of skills, time allowed, and scoring rules depend on your testing provider and state.

NurseTogether’s CNA prep materials, including CNA Pass and free practice tests, are independent educational resources and are not affiliated with or endorsed by NCSBN, Credentia, Headmaster, Prometric, or any official testing agency. Provider and exam names are used for identification only.