Free NLN NEX Practice Test

Get ready for the 2026 NLN NEX exam by testing your skills with our free practice test.

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QUESTION COUNT:

100 Questions

TIME LIMIT:

120 Minutes

FORMAT:

Multiple Choice

About Our TEAS 7 Practice Test

This NLN NEX practice test checks your understanding of the core subjects covered on the exam, including verbal skills, math, and science. It is designed to help you build accuracy, improve time management, and apply essential academic skills in realistic nursing entrance exam scenarios.

Each question reflects common topics and question styles you may encounter on the actual NLN NEX in 2026. At the end of our interactive practice test, you will get a score of your performance by category, giving you the chance to assess your understanding and identify categories where you might be able to improve All our questions and rationales have been reviewed by an experienced registered nurse (RN) to support accurate, exam-relevant practice.

Maegan Baker, BSN, RN, CCM Avatar
Questions reviewed by
Maegan Baker, BSN, RN, CCM
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Full Question Bank & Rationales

Below, you will find the complete list of 100 questions from our NLN NEX practice test. We have included a detailed rationale for every question to help you understand the why behind the correct answer.

These questions are listed in the same order as our interactive practice test and are grouped by exam category.

Some questions are marked as Challenging. These questions are designed to be a bit harder than the rest and usually include more detailed scenarios. Use them to build confidence with tougher exam-style questions and to pinpoint which skills or concepts to revisit before test day.

Note: The answer and rationale are hidden by default. Click “Show Answer & Rationale” after you answer the question to see if you got it right.

Jump to Exam Category:

Verbal Ability

1. Question

Context

Telehealth, which involves delivering health-related services and information through electronic communication and telecommunication tools, has grown quickly in recent years. In rural communities, this growth has significantly changed how residents can access healthcare. In the past, people living in rural areas often struggled to obtain specialized medical care because they had to travel for hours to reach urban medical centers. Telehealth mitigates this problem by making it possible for patients to meet with specialists from nearby clinics or even from their homes. Still, telehealth has limitations. Reliable broadband internet is not available in all remote areas, producing a “digital divide” that can leave some of the most vulnerable patients unable to use these services. Some healthcare providers also argue that virtual appointments may miss important details that are easier to observe during in-person examinations, which could create diagnostic difficulties. Even with these challenges, continued investment in rural infrastructure and improvements in diagnostic technology indicate that telehealth will likely remain an important part of modern healthcare.

What is the main idea of the passage?

  1. Telehealth provides healthcare access benefits for rural areas, despite ongoing challenges.
  2. Telehealth has completely eliminated all historical barriers to healthcare in rural communities.
  3. Lack of broadband internet access is the single greatest threat to modern medical practice.
  4. Virtual visits are inherently inferior to in-person examinations and should be limited.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage presents a balanced view of telehealth by describing how it improves rural access to care while also acknowledging barriers such as limited broadband and diagnostic concerns. Choice B is too absolute because the passage clearly states that problems remain. Choice A best summarizes the author’s overall point.

2. Question

Context

Telehealth, which involves delivering health-related services and information through electronic communication and telecommunication tools, has grown quickly in recent years. In rural communities, this growth has significantly changed how residents can access healthcare. In the past, people living in rural areas often struggled to obtain specialized medical care because they had to travel for hours to reach urban medical centers. Telehealth mitigates this problem by making it possible for patients to meet with specialists from nearby clinics or even from their homes. Still, telehealth has limitations. Reliable broadband internet is not available in all remote areas, producing a “digital divide” that can leave some of the most vulnerable patients unable to use these services. Some healthcare providers also argue that virtual appointments may miss important details that are easier to observe during in-person examinations, which could create diagnostic difficulties. Even with these challenges, continued investment in rural infrastructure and improvements in diagnostic technology indicate that telehealth will likely remain an important part of modern healthcare.

Based on the passage regarding telehealth, which of the following is explicitly identified as a historical barrier to healthcare for rural residents?

  1. A shortage of qualified medical specialists
  2. The high financial cost of broadband internet
  3. A lack of trust in virtual diagnostic technologies
  4. Hours of travel required to reach urban medical centers
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The passage directly explains that rural residents often had to travel for hours to reach urban medical centers in order to receive specialized care. Choice D repeats that stated barrier. Choices A and B may seem realistic, but they are not specifically identified in the passage.

3. Question

Context

Telehealth, which involves delivering health-related services and information through electronic communication and telecommunication tools, has grown quickly in recent years. In rural communities, this growth has significantly changed how residents can access healthcare. In the past, people living in rural areas often struggled to obtain specialized medical care because they had to travel for hours to reach urban medical centers. Telehealth mitigates this problem by making it possible for patients to meet with specialists from nearby clinics or even from their homes. Still, telehealth has limitations. Reliable broadband internet is not available in all remote areas, producing a “digital divide” that can leave some of the most vulnerable patients unable to use these services. Some healthcare providers also argue that virtual appointments may miss important details that are easier to observe during in-person examinations, which could create diagnostic difficulties. Even with these challenges, continued investment in rural infrastructure and improvements in diagnostic technology indicate that telehealth will likely remain an important part of modern healthcare.

In the context of the telehealth passage, what does the word “mitigates” most closely mean?

  1. Complicates
  2. Highlights
  3. Alleviates
  4. Measures
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

In context, telehealth helps reduce the problem of long travel by allowing patients to consult specialists locally or from home. Because the word describes making a difficulty less severe, “alleviates” is the best match. “Complicates” has the opposite meaning and does not fit the positive effect described.

4. Question

Context

Telehealth, which involves delivering health-related services and information through electronic communication and telecommunication tools, has grown quickly in recent years. In rural communities, this growth has significantly changed how residents can access healthcare. In the past, people living in rural areas often struggled to obtain specialized medical care because they had to travel for hours to reach urban medical centers. Telehealth mitigates this problem by making it possible for patients to meet with specialists from nearby clinics or even from their homes. Still, telehealth has limitations. Reliable broadband internet is not available in all remote areas, producing a “digital divide” that can leave some of the most vulnerable patients unable to use these services. Some healthcare providers also argue that virtual appointments may miss important details that are easier to observe during in-person examinations, which could create diagnostic difficulties. Even with these challenges, continued investment in rural infrastructure and improvements in diagnostic technology indicate that telehealth will likely remain an important part of modern healthcare.

What can be logically inferred about the “digital divide” mentioned in the telehealth passage?

  1. It is intentionally created by healthcare providers to limit the number of virtual patients.
  2. It prevents telehealth from functioning as an equally accessible solution for all rural residents.
  3. It affects urban populations more severely than rural populations.
  4. It will be completely and permanently resolved by evolving diagnostic technologies.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The passage says that unreliable broadband can leave some vulnerable patients unable to use telehealth services. This supports the inference that telehealth is not equally available to all rural residents. Choice D goes beyond the text because improvements in technology are mentioned, but a complete solution to internet access is not promised.

5. Question

Context

Even when healthcare workers receive thorough training and are expected to follow clear hand hygiene procedures, compliance often remains lower than ideal. Research suggests that these lapses usually do not result from intentional rule-breaking or a lack of knowledge. Instead, they are often linked to conditions within the healthcare environment. Heavy patient loads, too few staff members, and inconveniently located sinks or sanitizer stations can all make consistent hand hygiene more difficult. For example, a nurse responding quickly to a critically ill patient may experience even a brief search for a sink or sanitizer as a serious obstacle. Improving compliance, therefore, requires hospitals to focus less on punishment and more on practical changes to the system. Facilities that have raised hand hygiene rates often create a stronger culture of safety by placing automated sanitizer dispensers at each patient bedside, using electronic monitoring tools that give immediate feedback, and encouraging staff members to offer respectful reminders to one another without fear of being punished.

What is the author’s primary purpose in writing this passage?

  1. To condemn healthcare workers for failing to follow hand hygiene protocols
  2. To explain the medical consequences of healthcare-associated infections
  3. To compare the hand hygiene rates of different medical facilities
  4. To argue that systemic and environmental changes best improve hand hygiene compliance
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The author emphasizes that poor hand hygiene compliance often results from workplace conditions rather than intentional misconduct or ignorance. The passage then recommends practical system-level improvements, such as better dispenser placement and feedback tools. Choice D therefore captures the author’s main purpose.

6. Question

Context

Even when healthcare workers receive thorough training and are expected to follow clear hand hygiene procedures, compliance often remains lower than ideal. Research suggests that these lapses usually do not result from intentional rule-breaking or a lack of knowledge. Instead, they are often linked to conditions within the healthcare environment. Heavy patient loads, too few staff members, and inconveniently located sinks or sanitizer stations can all make consistent hand hygiene more difficult. For example, a nurse responding quickly to a critically ill patient may experience even a brief search for a sink or sanitizer as a serious obstacle. Improving compliance, therefore, requires hospitals to focus less on punishment and more on practical changes to the system. Facilities that have raised hand hygiene rates often create a stronger culture of safety by placing automated sanitizer dispensers at each patient bedside, using electronic monitoring tools that give immediate feedback, and encouraging staff members to offer respectful reminders to one another without fear of being punished.

According to the hand hygiene passage, which of the following is a reason why a healthcare worker might fail to comply with hand hygiene protocols?

  1. High patient volumes and understaffing
  2. A desire to bypass hospital rules
  3. A lack of understanding of hygiene protocols
  4. Fear of reprimand from management
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage explicitly names heavy patient loads and too few staff members as environmental factors that make consistent hand hygiene harder. Choice A reflects this stated cause. Choices B and C are contradicted because the passage says lapses usually are not due to ignorance or deliberate rule-breaking.

7. Question

Context

Even when healthcare workers receive thorough training and are expected to follow clear hand hygiene procedures, compliance often remains lower than ideal. Research suggests that these lapses usually do not result from intentional rule-breaking or a lack of knowledge. Instead, they are often linked to conditions within the healthcare environment. Heavy patient loads, too few staff members, and inconveniently located sinks or sanitizer stations can all make consistent hand hygiene more difficult. For example, a nurse responding quickly to a critically ill patient may experience even a brief search for a sink or sanitizer as a serious obstacle. Improving compliance, therefore, requires hospitals to focus less on punishment and more on practical changes to the system. Facilities that have raised hand hygiene rates often create a stronger culture of safety by placing automated sanitizer dispensers at each patient bedside, using electronic monitoring tools that give immediate feedback, and encouraging staff members to offer respectful reminders to one another without fear of being punished.

Based on the hand hygiene passage, which action would the author most likely support a hospital taking to improve hygiene compliance?

  1. Implementing a strict zero-tolerance policy that punishes staff for hygiene violations
  2. Reducing the amount of time nurses are allowed to spend with critical patients
  3. Moving hand sanitizer dispensers directly into every patient room for easy access
  4. Requiring all healthcare workers to take a weekly written exam on hygiene rules
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The passage supports practical changes that make hand hygiene easier, including placing automated sanitizer dispensers at each patient bedside. Moving dispensers into patient rooms is consistent with that approach. Choice A conflicts with the author’s preference for system improvements rather than punishment.

8. Question

Context

Which of the following best describes the author’s tone toward healthcare workers in the hand hygiene passage?

  1. Accusatory and hostile
  2. Sympathetic and analytical
  3. Indifferent and objective
  4. Condescending and pessimistic
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The author analyzes why compliance problems occur while also recognizing the pressures healthcare workers face, such as high workloads and urgent patient needs. Because the passage avoids blaming workers and instead focuses on system barriers, the tone is best described as sympathetic and analytical.

9. Question

Context

The body’s response to stress, commonly called the “fight or flight” response, evolved to help people survive sudden physical threats. When the brain senses danger, the hypothalamus sends a signal to the adrenal glands, causing them to release hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones make the heart beat faster, raise blood pressure, and provide the body with extra energy. For brief periods, this reaction can be useful and protective. In today’s world, however, the same system can be activated by nonphysical pressures, including money problems, school demands, or job-related stress. If this alarm response stays persistently active, the body may experience continuous overexposure to cortisol. Over time, this can interfere with many normal body functions and increase the likelihood of health problems such as anxiety, depression, digestive troubles, and heart disease.

Which of the following best describes the primary text structure of this passage?

  1. Cause and effect
  2. Chronological order
  3. Compare and contrast
  4. Problem and solution
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage explains how sensing danger causes hormone release and physical changes, then shows how ongoing activation can lead to health problems. Since it repeatedly links causes with their effects, Choice A best describes the structure. The passage mentions different types of stress, but comparison is not the main organizing pattern.

10. Question

Context

The body’s response to stress, commonly called the “fight or flight” response, evolved to help people survive sudden physical threats. When the brain senses danger, the hypothalamus sends a signal to the adrenal glands, causing them to release hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones make the heart beat faster, raise blood pressure, and provide the body with extra energy. For brief periods, this reaction can be useful and protective. In today’s world, however, the same system can be activated by nonphysical pressures, including money problems, school demands, or job-related stress. If this alarm response stays persistently active, the body may experience continuous overexposure to cortisol. Over time, this can interfere with many normal body functions and increase the likelihood of health problems such as anxiety, depression, digestive troubles, and heart disease.

Based on the stress response passage, what can be inferred about the “fight or flight” mechanism?

  1. It is an outdated biological process that no longer provides any benefit to humans.
  2. It is primarily controlled by a person’s conscious thoughts and willpower.
  3. It only activates when a person engages in strenuous physical exercise.
  4. It is unable to distinguish between a physical threat and a psychological worry.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The passage states that the fight or flight response evolved for sudden physical threats but can also be triggered by modern nonphysical pressures. This suggests the body may respond similarly to physical danger and psychological stress. Choice A is incorrect because the response is described as useful and protective in brief periods.

11. Question

Context

The body’s response to stress, commonly called the “fight or flight” response, evolved to help people survive sudden physical threats. When the brain senses danger, the hypothalamus sends a signal to the adrenal glands, causing them to release hormones such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones make the heart beat faster, raise blood pressure, and provide the body with extra energy. For brief periods, this reaction can be useful and protective. In today’s world, however, the same system can be activated by nonphysical pressures, including money problems, school demands, or job-related stress. If this alarm response stays persistently active, the body may experience continuous overexposure to cortisol. Over time, this can interfere with many normal body functions and increase the likelihood of health problems such as anxiety, depression, digestive troubles, and heart disease.

In the context of the stress response passage, what does the word “persistently” most closely mean?

  1. Rarely
  2. Willingly
  3. Continuously
  4. Powerfully
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The phrase “persistently active” is followed by the idea of “continuous overexposure to cortisol,” which signals that the response remains active over time. Therefore, “continuously” is the closest meaning. “Powerfully” does not capture the word’s meaning about duration.

12. Question

Context

Which word is closest in meaning to “ameliorate”?

  1. Improve
  2. Exacerbate
  3. Fluctuate
  4. Suppress
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

“Ameliorate” means to make a bad or unsatisfactory condition better. Because “improve” expresses that meaning most directly, Choice A is correct. “Exacerbate” means to make something worse, so it is the opposite rather than a synonym.

13. Question

Context

The prefix “contra-” in the word “contraindicate” means:

  1. Under
  2. Together
  3. Before
  4. Against
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The prefix “contra-” means against, opposite, or opposing. In the medical word “contraindicate,” it refers to a reason that goes against using a particular treatment. Choice C is incorrect because “before” is associated with other prefixes, not “contra-“.

14. Question

Context

Choose the word that best completes the sentence: “Due to the highly ______ nature of the virus, the hospital implemented strict respiratory isolation protocols immediately.”

  1. benign
  2. contagious
  3. obscure
  4. stagnant
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

A virus that requires strict respiratory isolation would be one that can spread from person to person. “Contagious” best fits that context. “Benign” means harmless, which would not explain the need for immediate isolation protocols.

15. Question

Context

Which word is closest in meaning to “lethargic”?

  1. Hostile
  2. Energetic
  3. Sluggish
  4. Anxious
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

“Lethargic” refers to being tired, slow-moving, or lacking energy. “Sluggish” is the closest synonym. “Energetic” means the opposite, so it cannot be the correct answer.

16. Question

Context

Which pair of words shares the same logical relationship as Thermometer : Temperature?

  1. Syringe : Needle
  2. Chart : Patient
  3. Bandage : Wound
  4. Stethoscope : Heartbeat
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

A thermometer is a tool used to measure temperature. Similarly, a stethoscope is a tool used to listen to or detect a heartbeat. Choice C is not the same relationship because a bandage treats or covers a wound rather than measuring or detecting it.

17. Question

Context

Choose the word that best completes the sentence:
The speaker’s ______ remarks during the solemn memorial ceremony deeply offended many of the grieving attendees.

  1. flippant
  2. reverent
  3. poignant
  4. eloquent
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

“Flippant” describes a disrespectfully casual or unserious attitude, which would be offensive at a solemn memorial ceremony. The other choices are positive or respectful in tone and would not logically explain why grieving attendees were offended.

18. Question

Context

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence:
The nurse attempted to ______ a response from the unresponsive patient by speaking loudly and applying physical stimulation.

  1. illicit
  2. elicit
  3. elude
  4. allude
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

“Elicit” means to draw out or bring forth a response, which fits the nurse’s attempt to get a reaction from the patient. “Illicit” is an adjective meaning unlawful or forbidden, while “allude” and “elude” have unrelated meanings.

19. Question

Context

Which word is closest in meaning to “pragmatic”?

  1. Theoretical
  2. Idealistic
  3. Complicated
  4. Practical
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

“Pragmatic” means focused on realistic, practical solutions rather than abstract ideas. Therefore, “practical” is the closest synonym. “Idealistic” and “theoretical” point away from the practical meaning of the word.

20. Question

Context

The suffix “-itis,” as seen in medical terms like bronchitis and appendicitis, generally means:

  1. Inflammation
  2. Disease
  3. Removal
  4. Hardening
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

In medical terminology, the suffix “-itis” indicates inflammation of a body part or tissue. For example, bronchitis refers to inflammation of the bronchi. The other choices correspond to different medical word parts, not “-itis.”

21. Question (Challenging)

Context

The human body follows an approximately 24-hour cycle called the circadian rhythm, an internal timing system strongly shaped by environmental signals, especially light. In earlier times, people’s sleep routines generally corresponded with sunrise and sunset. Today, however, artificial lighting and the ubiquitous use of blue-light-emitting devices such as phones, tablets, and computers have significantly disturbed this natural pattern. Blue light suppresses the pineal gland’s production of melatonin, the hormone responsible for inducing sleepiness. As a result, spending long periods on screens before bedtime may delay the onset of sleep and lower overall sleep quality. If sleep deprivation becomes chronic, it can contribute to many health problems, including reduced cognitive performance, a weaker immune system, and greater risk of metabolic conditions such as obesity and type 2 diabetes. Although pharmacological interventions for sleep are available, sleep specialists often recommend sleep hygiene practices as a first-line defense. These habits include keeping a regular sleep schedule, maintaining a cool and dark bedroom, and setting a firm digital curfew at least one hour before going to bed. By adjusting daily routines to better match the body’s natural expectations, people can help restore healthier circadian rhythms.

What is the main idea of the passage?

  1. Blue light from screens is the single leading cause of metabolic disorders in modern society.
  2. Pharmacological interventions are dangerous and should be banned due to their interference with the pineal gland.
  3. Sleep hygiene practices are recommended to counteract the disruption of circadian rhythms caused by modern technology.
  4. The human circadian rhythm has evolved to no longer rely on environmental light cues for regulation.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The passage explains that modern light exposure and screen use can disturb circadian rhythms, then presents sleep hygiene habits as a recommended way to restore healthier patterns. Choice C captures both the problem and the recommended response. Choice A is too extreme, and Choices B and D contradict details in the passage.

22. Question

Context

The human body follows an approximately 24-hour cycle called the circadian rhythm, an internal timing system strongly shaped by environmental signals, especially light. In earlier times, people’s sleep routines generally corresponded with sunrise and sunset. Today, however, artificial lighting and the ubiquitous use of blue-light-emitting devices such as phones, tablets, and computers have significantly disturbed this natural pattern. Blue light suppresses the pineal gland’s production of melatonin, the hormone responsible for inducing sleepiness. As a result, spending long periods on screens before bedtime may delay the onset of sleep and lower overall sleep quality. If sleep deprivation becomes chronic, it can contribute to many health problems, including reduced cognitive performance, a weaker immune system, and greater risk of metabolic conditions such as obesity and type 2 diabetes. Although pharmacological interventions for sleep are available, sleep specialists often recommend sleep hygiene practices as a first-line defense. These habits include keeping a regular sleep schedule, maintaining a cool and dark bedroom, and setting a firm digital curfew at least one hour before going to bed. By adjusting daily routines to better match the body’s natural expectations, people can help restore healthier circadian rhythms.

Based on the circadian rhythm passage, which hormone is explicitly identified as responsible for inducing sleepiness?

  1. Cortisol
  2. Melatonin
  3. Insulin
  4. Adrenaline
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The passage specifically identifies melatonin as the hormone responsible for inducing sleepiness. Therefore, Choice B is directly supported by the text. Cortisol and adrenaline may be associated with alertness or stress, but they are not named as the sleepiness-inducing hormone in this passage.

23. Question (Challenging)

Context

The human body follows an approximately 24-hour cycle called the circadian rhythm, an internal timing system strongly shaped by environmental signals, especially light. In earlier times, people’s sleep routines generally corresponded with sunrise and sunset. Today, however, artificial lighting and the ubiquitous use of blue-light-emitting devices such as phones, tablets, and computers have significantly disturbed this natural pattern. Blue light suppresses the pineal gland’s production of melatonin, the hormone responsible for inducing sleepiness. As a result, spending long periods on screens before bedtime may delay the onset of sleep and lower overall sleep quality. If sleep deprivation becomes chronic, it can contribute to many health problems, including reduced cognitive performance, a weaker immune system, and greater risk of metabolic conditions such as obesity and type 2 diabetes. Although pharmacological interventions for sleep are available, sleep specialists often recommend sleep hygiene practices as a first-line defense. These habits include keeping a regular sleep schedule, maintaining a cool and dark bedroom, and setting a firm digital curfew at least one hour before going to bed. By adjusting daily routines to better match the body’s natural expectations, people can help restore healthier circadian rhythms.

Based on the circadian rhythm passage, what can be logically inferred about the use of pharmacological interventions for sleep?

  1. They are generally considered secondary to behavioral modifications.
  2. They are completely ineffective at treating chronic sleep deprivation.
  3. They permanently cure circadian rhythm disruptions with long-term use.
  4. They work by increasing the amount of blue light the brain processes.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage states that sleep medications exist but that specialists often recommend sleep hygiene as a first-line defense. This implies that behavioral changes are generally preferred before medications. Choices B and C make unsupported absolute claims, and Choice D conflicts with the passage’s explanation of blue light.

24. Question

Context

The human body follows an approximately 24-hour cycle called the circadian rhythm, an internal timing system strongly shaped by environmental signals, especially light. In earlier times, people’s sleep routines generally corresponded with sunrise and sunset. Today, however, artificial lighting and the ubiquitous use of blue-light-emitting devices such as phones, tablets, and computers have significantly disturbed this natural pattern. Blue light suppresses the pineal gland’s production of melatonin, the hormone responsible for inducing sleepiness. As a result, spending long periods on screens before bedtime may delay the onset of sleep and lower overall sleep quality. If sleep deprivation becomes chronic, it can contribute to many health problems, including reduced cognitive performance, a weaker immune system, and greater risk of metabolic conditions such as obesity and type 2 diabetes. Although pharmacological interventions for sleep are available, sleep specialists often recommend sleep hygiene practices as a first-line defense. These habits include keeping a regular sleep schedule, maintaining a cool and dark bedroom, and setting a firm digital curfew at least one hour before going to bed. By adjusting daily routines to better match the body’s natural expectations, people can help restore healthier circadian rhythms.

In the context of the circadian rhythm passage, what does the word “ubiquitous” most closely mean?

  1. Rare
  2. Expensive
  3. Harmful
  4. Omnipresent
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

“Ubiquitous” means found everywhere or very widespread. In the passage, it describes how common blue-light-emitting devices have become in modern life. Although those devices may negatively affect sleep, the word itself refers to their widespread presence, not their harmfulness.

25. Question (Challenging)

Context

Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928, and his discovery marked the beginning of a medical revolution. Infections caused by bacteria, once often fatal, could now be treated effectively, contributing to dramatic improvements in health and life expectancy around the world. Yet this triumph had limits. Soon after antibiotics came into widespread use, bacteria began adapting to them. Through spontaneous mutation and horizontal gene transfer, certain bacterial strains acquired ways to neutralize antibiotics or pump them out of their cells. These resistant traits could then be inherited by later generations, producing ‘superbugs’ able to survive ordinary drug treatments. Today, antimicrobial resistance is recognized by the World Health Organization as one of the top ten global public health threats facing humanity. The overprescription of antibiotics for viral infections, against which they are useless, and their extensive use in agriculture to promote livestock growth have dramatically accelerated this crisis. Unless doctors, health systems, and agricultural industries sharply reduce the indiscriminate use of these drugs, humanity risks entering a post-antibiotic era where minor injuries and routine surgeries once again carry a profound risk of fatal infection.

Which of the following best describes the author’s tone toward the end of the passage?

  1. Objective and indifferent
  2. Optimistic and celebratory
  3. Cautionary and urgent
  4. Sarcastic and bitter
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Near the end, the passage warns that continued misuse of antibiotics could lead to a dangerous post-antibiotic era. Phrases about a global public health threat and the risk of fatal infections create a cautionary and urgent tone. Choice B fits the opening discussion of penicillin’s benefits, not the conclusion.

26. Question

Context

Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928, and his discovery marked the beginning of a medical revolution. Infections caused by bacteria, once often fatal, could now be treated effectively, contributing to dramatic improvements in health and life expectancy around the world. Yet this triumph had limits. Soon after antibiotics came into widespread use, bacteria began adapting to them. Through spontaneous mutation and horizontal gene transfer, certain bacterial strains acquired ways to neutralize antibiotics or pump them out of their cells. These resistant traits could then be inherited by later generations, producing ‘superbugs’ able to survive ordinary drug treatments. Today, antimicrobial resistance is recognized by the World Health Organization as one of the top ten global public health threats facing humanity. The overprescription of antibiotics for viral infections, against which they are useless, and their extensive use in agriculture to promote livestock growth have dramatically accelerated this crisis. Unless doctors, health systems, and agricultural industries sharply reduce the indiscriminate use of these drugs, humanity risks entering a post-antibiotic era where minor injuries and routine surgeries once again carry a profound risk of fatal infection.

According to the antibiotic resistance passage, which of the following is an explicit cause of accelerated antimicrobial resistance?

  1. The prescribing of antibiotics to treat viral illnesses
  2. The underuse of antibiotics in agricultural sectors
  3. The targeted, limited use of antibiotics for severe bacterial infections
  4. A sudden decrease in horizontal gene transfer among bacteria
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The passage clearly states that overprescribing antibiotics for viral infections has accelerated antimicrobial resistance, even though antibiotics do not work against viruses. Choice A matches that stated cause. Choice B reverses the passage’s point about agriculture, and Choice D contradicts the role of horizontal gene transfer.

27. Question (Challenging)

Context

Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928, and his discovery marked the beginning of a medical revolution. Infections caused by bacteria, once often fatal, could now be treated effectively, contributing to dramatic improvements in health and life expectancy around the world. Yet this triumph had limits. Soon after antibiotics came into widespread use, bacteria began adapting to them. Through spontaneous mutation and horizontal gene transfer, certain bacterial strains acquired ways to neutralize antibiotics or pump them out of their cells. These resistant traits could then be inherited by later generations, producing ‘superbugs’ able to survive ordinary drug treatments. Today, antimicrobial resistance is recognized by the World Health Organization as one of the top ten global public health threats facing humanity. The overprescription of antibiotics for viral infections, against which they are useless, and their extensive use in agriculture to promote livestock growth have dramatically accelerated this crisis. Unless doctors, health systems, and agricultural industries sharply reduce the indiscriminate use of these drugs, humanity risks entering a post-antibiotic era where minor injuries and routine surgeries once again carry a profound risk of fatal infection.

Which statement drawn from the antibiotic resistance passage represents a future projection or warning rather than a strictly historical or current scientific fact?

  1. Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928.
  2. Antimicrobial resistance is recognized by the World Health Organization as a top ten health threat.
  3. Bacteria use spontaneous mutation and horizontal gene transfer to develop resistant traits.
  4. Humanity risks entering a post-antibiotic era where minor injuries carry a profound risk of fatal infection.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Choice D describes what could happen in the future if antibiotic misuse continues, so it functions as a warning or projection. The other choices describe a historical event, a current public health recognition, or a biological mechanism presented as factual in the passage.

28. Question

Context

Which word is the best synonym for “sedentary”?

  1. Active
  2. Inactive
  3. Nutritional
  4. Stressful
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

“Sedentary” describes a lifestyle involving little movement or physical activity. “Inactive” is therefore the best synonym. “Active” means the opposite, while “stressful” and “nutritional” do not match the meaning of the word.

29. Question

Context

Which word is the most accurate antonym for “trivial”?

  1. Common
  2. Insignificant
  3. Crucial
  4. Complex
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

“Trivial” means unimportant or of little value. The best opposite is “crucial,” which means extremely important. “Insignificant” is a synonym rather than an antonym, making it an incorrect choice.

30. Question

Context

The prefix “hyper-” in medical terminology generally means:

  1. Excessive or above normal
  2. Between or among
  3. Under or below normal
  4. Fast or rapid
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The medical prefix “hyper-” means excessive, above normal, or over. For example, hypertension refers to blood pressure that is higher than normal. Choice C describes “hypo-,” while Choice D is closer to the meaning of “tachy-“.

31. Question

Context

Choose the word that best completes the sentence:
The nursing staff noted a significant ______ between the patient’s reported pain level of ten out of ten and their relaxed, comfortable physical demeanor.

  1. consensus
  2. correlation
  3. alignment
  4. discrepancy
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

A “discrepancy” is a noticeable difference or mismatch between two things. This fits the contrast between the patient’s reported pain level and their relaxed appearance. The other options suggest agreement or consistency, which does not match the sentence.

32. Question (Challenging)

Context

Which pair of words shares the same logical relationship as Antiseptic : Infection?

  1. Diagnosis : Symptom
  2. Sunscreen: Skin cancer
  3. Vaccine : Immunity
  4. Ambulance : Emergency
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

An antiseptic is used to help prevent infection. In the same way, sunscreen is used to help prevent skin cancer. Choice C is tempting, but a vaccine produces immunity rather than preventing immunity, so it does not match the relationship.

33. Question

Context

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence:
To ensure patient safety, a thorough review of the patient’s allergy history must ______ the administration of any newly prescribed intravenous medication.

  1. recede
  2. proceed
  3. precede
  4. exceed
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

“Precede” means to come before, which fits because allergy history should be reviewed before a new intravenous medication is given. “Proceed” sounds similar but means to continue or move forward. “Recede” and “exceed” also do not fit the required meaning.

34. Question

Context

The suffix “-ectomy,” as seen in medical terms like appendectomy and tonsillectomy, means:

  1. Surgical repair
  2. Visual examination
  3. Surgical removal
  4. Incision into
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The suffix “-ectomy” refers to the surgical removal of a body part or tissue. Appendectomy and tonsillectomy both involve removing the named structure. The other choices refer to different surgical or medical suffixes, not “-ectomy.”

35. Question

Context

Choose the word that best completes the sentence:
It is critical that the discharging nurse does not ______ any steps when explaining the post-operative wound care instructions to the patient’s family.

  1. alter
  2. omit
  3. enforce
  4. emphasize
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

“Omit” means to leave something out, which fits the warning that no steps should be skipped during discharge teaching. Missing steps in wound care instructions could put the patient at risk. “Alter” is possible in a general sense, but “omit” most directly matches the idea of failing to include steps.

Math

36. Question (Challenging)

A medication is prescribed at a dosage of 5 milligrams per kilogram of body weight. The patient weighs 176 pounds. If the medication is supplied in a concentration of 50 milligrams per milliliter, how many milliliters should be administered? (1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds)

  1. 8 mL
  2. 17.6 mL
  3. 4 mL
  4. 35.2 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Convert the patient’s weight to kilograms first: 176 ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. Next, calculate the dose needed by multiplying 80 kg by 5 mg/kg, which equals 400 mg. Finally, divide 400 mg by 50 mg/mL to get 8 mL. A student might choose 17.6 mL if they use pounds directly instead of converting to kilograms.

37. Question

A patient weighs 75 kilograms. Given that 1 kilogram is approximately equal to 2.2 pounds, what is the patient’s weight in pounds?

  1. 34.1 lbs
  2. 165 lbs
  3. 175 lbs
  4. 150 lbs
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

To change kilograms into pounds, multiply the number of kilograms by 2.2. Since 75 × 2.2 = 165, the patient’s weight is 165 pounds. Choice A could result from dividing 75 by 2.2 instead of multiplying.

38. Question

A patient has completed 3/8 of their prescribed physical therapy sessions. What percentage of the sessions has the patient completed?

  1. 3.8%
  2. 26.6%
  3. 38.0%
  4. 37.5%
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

To turn 3/8 into a percentage, divide 3 by 8 to get 0.375. Then multiply by 100 to convert the decimal to a percent, which gives 37.5%. A student might choose Choice A or Choice C if they focus on the digits 3 and 8 instead of converting the fraction properly.

39. Question

A hospital unit requires 1 nurse for every 4 patients. If the unit is at full capacity with 36 patients, and each nurse works a 12-hour shift, how many total nurses are needed to cover a 24-hour period?

  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 36
  4. 9
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

For one 12-hour shift, divide 36 patients by 4 patients per nurse, which gives 9 nurses. Since 24 hours requires two 12-hour shifts, multiply 9 by 2 to get 18 nurses total. A student might choose 9 if they only calculate staffing for one shift.

40. Question

A lab technician is organizing four different microtubes based on the volume of liquid they contain in milliliters (mL). Which of the following volumes is the largest?

  1. 0.5 mL
  2. 0.45 mL
  3. 0.405 mL
  4. 0.050 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Write the decimals with the same number of decimal places to compare them more clearly: 0.450, 0.050, 0.405, and 0.500. The largest of these values is 0.500, which is the same as 0.5. A student might choose Choice C if they focus on the number of digits rather than the decimal place value.

41. Question

A patient’s systolic blood pressure dropped from 160 mmHg to 136 mmHg after receiving medication. What was the percentage decrease in the patient’s systolic blood pressure?

  1. 24%
  2. 85%
  3. 15%
  4. 17.6%
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

First find the decrease by subtracting 136 from 160, which equals 24 mmHg. Then divide 24 by the original value, 160, to get 0.15. Converting this decimal to a percent gives 15%. A student might choose 17.6% if they divide by the final value instead of the starting value.

42. Question

Evaluate the following expression: 8 + 12 ÷ 4 × 2 – 3

  1. 13
  2. 6.5
  3. 11
  4. 7
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Using the order of operations (PEMDAS), division and multiplication should be completed from left to right before doing addition or subtraction. Divide 12 by 4 to get 3, then multiply by 2 to get 6. Finally, calculate 8 + 6 – 3, which equals 11. A student might incorrectly choose 7 if they add 8 and 12 first before dividing.

43. Question

A physician orders 0.5 grams of an antibiotic. The medication is supplied by the pharmacy in 250-milligram (mg) tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer? (1 gram = 1,000 milligrams)

  1. 2
  2. 0.5
  3. 5
  4. 4
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Convert the order from grams to milligrams first. Since 1 gram equals 1,000 milligrams, 0.5 grams equals 500 mg. Then divide 500 mg by 250 mg per tablet to get 2 tablets. A student might choose Choice B if they mistake the gram amount for the tablet amount.

44. Question

A patient consumes the following liquids during a shift: 250 mL of juice, 0.5 liters of water, and 150 mL of broth. What is the patient’s total fluid intake in milliliters?

  1. 1,250 mL
  2. 900 mL
  3. 405 mL
  4. 400 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Convert 0.5 liters to milliliters first, which gives 500 mL. Then add all three amounts: 250 mL + 500 mL + 150 mL = 900 mL. A student might choose 405 mL if they add the numbers without converting liters to milliliters.

45. Question

A pharmacy inventory check reveals a total of 120 bottles of two different liquid antibiotics: Amoxicillin and Cephalexin. There are 3 times as many bottles of Amoxicillin as there are of Cephalexin. How many bottles of Amoxicillin are in the inventory?

  1. 40
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 30
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Let C represent the number of Cephalexin bottles, so the number of Amoxicillin bottles is 3C. Together, the total is C + 3C = 120, or 4C = 120. This gives C = 30, and Amoxicillin is 3 × 30 = 90. A student might choose 30 if they stop after finding the number of Cephalexin bottles.

46. Question

A nurse needs to administer 1,000 milliliters (mL) of normal saline over 8 hours. At what rate, in milliliters per hour (mL/hr), should the IV pump be set?

  1. 150 mL/hr
  2. 80 mL/hr
  3. 125 mL/hr
  4. 100 mL/hr
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

To determine the rate per hour, divide the total amount of fluid by the total number of hours. Dividing 1,000 mL by 8 hours gives 125 mL/hr. A student might choose 100 mL/hr if they divide by 10 instead of using the actual 8-hour time period.

47. Question (Challenging)

A clinical trial initially enrolls a certain number of participants. Over the first month, 15% of the participants dropped out, leaving 340 participants actively enrolled in the trial. How many participants were originally enrolled?

  1. 355
  2. 391
  3. 400
  4. 425
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

If 15% of the original participants dropped out, then 85% remained. The 340 active participants represent 85% of the starting number. Set up the equation 0.85x = 340, then divide 340 by 0.85 to get x = 400. A student might choose Choice B if they take 15% of 340 and add it back, rather than using 340 as 85% of the original total.

48. Question

A supply room has 3 1/2 boxes of medium gloves on one shelf and 2 3/4 boxes on another shelf. If the staff uses 1 1/4 boxes during a shift, how many boxes remain?

  1. 5
  2. 4 3/4
  3. 5 1/4
  4. 4 1/2
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Begin by adding the two amounts on the shelves: 3.5 + 2.75 = 6.25 boxes. Then subtract the amount used during the shift: 6.25 – 1.25 = 5 boxes. A student might choose 5 1/4 if they make an error while subtracting mixed numbers.

49. Question

Evaluate the following expression: 24 – 6 × 2 + 10 ÷ 5

  1. 9.2
  2. 38
  3. 14
  4. 20
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Follow the order of operations by doing multiplication and division before addition and subtraction. Multiply 6 × 2 to get 12, and divide 10 ÷ 5 to get 2. The expression becomes 24 – 12 + 2, which equals 14 when worked from left to right. A student might choose Choice A if they work straight from left to right without applying the order of operations.

50. Question

A nurse counts a patient’s heartbeat and notes 22 beats in 15 seconds. Assuming the patient’s heart rate remains steady, what is the patient’s heart rate in beats per minute?

  1. 78
  2. 110
  3. 66
  4. 88
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Since 60 seconds is four times as long as 15 seconds, multiply the 15-second count by 4. The calculation 22 × 4 gives 88 beats per minute. A student might choose 66 if they multiply by 3 instead of 4.

51. Question

A clinic has 80 appointments scheduled for the day. If 15% of the appointments are for new patients, how many new patient appointments are scheduled?

  1. 65
  2. 18
  3. 15
  4. 12
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

To calculate 15% of 80, rewrite 15% as the decimal 0.15 and multiply it by 80. The calculation 80 × 0.15 equals 12, so there are 12 new patient appointments. A student might choose 15 if they confuse the percent with the number of appointments.

52. Question

A patient’s fasting blood glucose levels were monitored over five consecutive days with the following results:
Monday: 110 mg/dL
Tuesday: 95 mg/dL
Wednesday: 145 mg/dL
Thursday: 102 mg/dL
Friday: 130 mg/dL
What is the range of the patient’s blood glucose levels over these five days?

  1. 35 mg/dL
  2. 43 mg/dL
  3. 116.4 mg/dL
  4. 50 mg/dL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The range is found by subtracting the lowest value from the highest value in the data set. The highest glucose reading is 145 mg/dL, and the lowest is 95 mg/dL. Subtracting 95 from 145 gives a range of 50 mg/dL. A student might choose Choice C if they calculate the mean instead of the range.

53. Question

The table below shows the number of flu vaccines administered at a clinic over four days:
Monday: 45
Tuesday: 52
Wednesday: 38
Thursday: 65
What percentage of the total vaccines administered over the four days were given on Thursday?

  1. 65.0%
  2. 32.5%
  3. 35.0%
  4. 25.5%
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

First add all four days to find the total number of vaccines: 45 + 52 + 38 + 65 = 200. Then divide Thursday’s 65 vaccines by the total, 200, to get 0.325, or 32.5%. A student might choose 65.0% if they mistake Thursday’s count for a percent.

54. Question

A nurse manager is determining a schedule. The total number of hours worked by part-time staff, represented by h, can be found using the equation 4h – 15 = 65. How many hours did the part-time staff work?

  1. 12.5
  2. 80
  3. 16.25
  4. 20
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

To solve for h, add 15 to both sides of the equation, giving 4h = 80. Then divide both sides by 4, which gives h = 20. A student might choose Choice A if they subtract 15 from 65 instead of adding 15 to both sides.

55. Question

A medication order calls for 400 milligrams (mg) of a drug. The pharmacy supplies the drug as an oral suspension with a concentration of 250 mg per 5 milliliters (mL). How many milliliters should be administered?

  1. 8 mL
  2. 10 mL
  3. 4 mL
  4. 6 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

First determine how many milligrams are in each milliliter by dividing 250 mg by 5 mL, which equals 50 mg/mL. Then divide the ordered amount, 400 mg, by 50 mg/mL to get 8 mL. A student might choose 4 mL if they set up the proportion incorrectly.

56. Question

Which of the following quantities is the largest?

  1. 3/5
  2. 5/8
  3. 62%
  4. 0.65
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Convert each quantity to a decimal to compare them directly. The fraction 5/8 equals 0.625, 62% equals 0.62, and 3/5 equals 0.60. Since 0.65 is greater than 0.625, 0.62, and 0.60, it is the largest. A student might choose 5/8 if they compare the fractions without converting.

57. Question

A patient’s temperature was recorded over four hours as 98.6°F, 99.2°F, 98.8°F, and 100.2°F. What is the patient’s average (mean) temperature over this period?

  1. 98.8°F
  2. 99.2°F
  3. 99.0°F
  4. 99.4°F
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

To calculate the mean, add the four temperature readings together: 98.6 + 99.2 + 98.8 + 100.2 = 396.8. Then divide by the number of readings, which is 4. This gives an average temperature of 99.2°F. A student might choose 99.0°F if they find the median instead of the mean.

58. Question

A patient is placed on a continuous IV infusion. For the first 4 hours, the infusion runs at a rate of 75 mL/hr. The doctor then decreases the rate to 50 mL/hr for the next 6 hours. What is the total volume of fluid the patient received over the entire 10-hour period?

  1. 600 mL
  2. 500 mL
  3. 1,250 mL
  4. 300 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Calculate the fluid for each time period separately. For the first 4 hours, 75 mL/hr × 4 hours = 300 mL. For the next 6 hours, 50 mL/hr × 6 hours = 300 mL. Adding the two amounts gives 600 mL total. A student might choose Choice B if they calculate only part of the situation or make an addition error.

59. Question

A medical supply drawer contains 15 rolls of standard tape, 10 rolls of sensitive-skin tape, and 5 rolls of waterproof tape. If a nurse reaches into the drawer and selects one roll at random, what is the probability that it is NOT a roll of sensitive-skin tape?

  1. 3/4
  2. 1/2
  3. 1/3
  4. 2/3
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

There are 30 total rolls of tape because 15 + 10 + 5 = 30. Rolls that are not sensitive-skin tape include the 15 standard rolls and 5 waterproof rolls, for a total of 20. The probability is therefore 20/30, which reduces to 2/3. A student might choose 1/3 if they find the probability of selecting sensitive-skin tape instead.

60. Question (Challenging)

A survey of 400 nursing students recorded their preferred specialty. 30% preferred Pediatrics, 25% preferred Emergency/Trauma, 1/5 preferred Surgery, and the rest preferred General Medicine. How many students preferred General Medicine?

  1. 100
  2. 25
  3. 120
  4. 80
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Convert the Surgery fraction to a percent: 1/5 equals 20%. The listed preferences are 30%, 25%, and 20%, which add to 75%. That leaves 25% for General Medicine. Since 25% of 400 is 100, 100 students preferred General Medicine. A student might choose 25 if they identify the remaining percentage but do not apply it to 400.

61. Question

Solve for x: 3(x – 4) + 5 = 20

  1. 11
  2. 9
  3. 7
  4. 5
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Distribute the 3 first: 3x – 12 + 5 = 20. This simplifies to 3x – 7 = 20. Add 7 to both sides to get 3x = 27, then divide by 3 to find x = 9. A student might choose 5 if they do not distribute the 3 to both terms inside the parentheses.

62. Question

For breakfast, a patient consumes 8 ounces of coffee, 12 ounces of water, and 4 ounces of apple juice. If 1 fluid ounce is approximately equal to 30 milliliters (mL), what is the patient’s total fluid intake in milliliters?

  1. 720 mL
  2. 600 mL
  3. 240 mL
  4. 750 mL
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Add the ounces first: 8 + 12 + 4 = 24 ounces. Then convert ounces to milliliters by multiplying 24 by 30 mL per ounce. The result is 720 mL. A student might choose Choice C if they only convert the coffee and leave out the other drinks.

63. Question

A clinic ordered a shipment of masks and gowns. The number of masks ordered was 50 more than twice the number of gowns. If the clinic ordered 450 masks, how many gowns did they order?

  1. 250
  2. 850
  3. 200
  4. 150
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Let M represent masks and G represent gowns. The relationship is M = 2G + 50. Substituting 450 for M gives 450 = 2G + 50. After subtracting 50, 400 = 2G, and dividing by 2 gives G = 200. A student might choose 250 if they do not finish isolating the variable correctly.

64. Question (Challenging)

An IV infusion is started at 0930 military time and is scheduled to run for 5 hours and 45 minutes. At what military time will the infusion be complete?

  1. 1445
  2. 1515
  3. 1530
  4. 1415
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Add 5 hours to 0930 to get 1430. Then add 45 more minutes. From 1430, adding 30 minutes reaches 1500, and adding the remaining 15 minutes reaches 1515. A student might choose 1415 if they handle the minutes incorrectly when crossing the hour.

65. Question

A breakroom fruit bowl contains 6 apples, 5 bananas, and 4 oranges. If a nurse randomly selects one piece of fruit without looking, what is the probability that the selected fruit is an apple?

  1. 2/3
  2. 2/5
  3. 3/5
  4. 1/3
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

First find the total number of pieces of fruit: 6 + 5 + 4 = 15. Since there are 6 apples, the probability of choosing an apple is 6/15. Simplifying this fraction gives 2/5. A student might choose Choice C if they calculate the probability of choosing something other than an apple.

Science

66. Question

Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in the body. To which class of biological macromolecules do most enzymes belong?

  1. Proteins
  2. Nucleic acids
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Lipids
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Most enzymes are proteins, and their specific folded shapes allow them to catalyze chemical reactions. Carbohydrates are important for energy storage and use, but they are not the main class of molecules that function as enzymes.

67. Question

In the human respiratory system, the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in which of the following structures?

  1. Trachea
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Alveoli
  4. Bronchioles
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Gas exchange takes place in the alveoli, the small air sacs where oxygen enters the bloodstream and carbon dioxide leaves it. Bronchioles lead air toward the alveoli, but they mainly serve as passageways rather than the site of actual gas exchange.

68. Question

In a double-stranded DNA molecule, which of the following correctly describes the complementary base pairing?

  1. Adenine pairs with thymine.
  2. Adenine pairs with uracil.
  3. Cytosine pairs with thymine.
  4. Adenine pairs with guanine.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

In DNA, complementary base-pairing rules state that adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine. Adenine pairs with uracil in RNA, not in double-stranded DNA.

69. Question

When blood glucose levels fall below normal, which of the following hormones is secreted by the pancreas to stimulate the liver to release stored glucose?

  1. Glucagon
  2. Insulin
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Cortisol
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Glucagon is released by the pancreas when blood glucose is low and signals the liver to break down stored glycogen into glucose. Insulin is closely related to blood sugar control, but it lowers blood glucose rather than raising it.

70. Question

Which structure is responsible for preventing blood from flowing back into the left atrium during ventricular contraction?

  1. Aortic valve
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Mitral valve
  4. Tricuspid valve
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The mitral valve sits between the left atrium and left ventricle and closes during ventricular contraction to stop blood from moving backward into the left atrium. The tricuspid valve performs a similar function on the right side of the heart, but it is not located between the left atrium and left ventricle.

71. Question

The atomic number of an element is determined exclusively by the number of which subatomic particles in its nucleus?

  1. Electrons
  2. Protons
  3. Neutrons
  4. Protons and neutrons combined
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The atomic number is defined by the number of protons in an atom’s nucleus, and this number determines the identity of the element. Protons plus neutrons give the mass number, which is different from the atomic number.

72. Question

A researcher is testing the effect of a new fertilizer on tomato plant growth. Group A receives the fertilizer, and Group B does not. Both groups receive the same amount of water, light, and soil type. What is the independent variable in this experiment?

  1. The growth of the tomato plants
  2. The application of the fertilizer
  3. The type of soil used
  4. The amount of water given
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The independent variable is the factor the researcher changes on purpose, which is whether or not fertilizer is applied. The growth of the tomato plants is the dependent variable because it is the result being measured.

73. Question

Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves, and sweat glands?

  1. Subcutaneous tissue
  2. Keratin layer
  3. Epidermis
  4. Dermis
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The dermis contains many of the skin’s functional structures, including blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, hair follicles, and connective tissue. The epidermis is the outer protective layer, but it does not contain the same blood vessels and glands found in the dermis.

74. Question

After oxygen-depleted blood leaves the right ventricle of the heart, into which of the following structures does it immediately flow?

  1. Pulmonary vein
  2. Pulmonary artery
  3. Aorta
  4. Left atrium
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve and directly into the pulmonary artery, which carries it toward the lungs. The pulmonary vein is a common distractor, but it returns oxygenated blood to the heart rather than carrying blood away from the right ventricle.

75. Question

In a saline solution prepared for intravenous administration, sodium chloride (NaCl) is dissolved in sterile water. In this scenario, what role does the sterile water play?

  1. The precipitate
  2. The solute
  3. The catalyst
  4. The solvent
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The solvent is the substance that dissolves another substance, so sterile water is the solvent in this saline solution. Sodium chloride is the solute because it is the substance being dissolved.

76. Question

Which structure separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity?

  1. Sternum
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Peritoneum
  4. Pleura
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The diaphragm is the muscular partition that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity and also helps drive inhalation by contracting and flattening. The pleura is related to the lungs, but it is a membrane rather than the structure dividing the chest and abdomen.

77. Question

A red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic salt solution. Which of the following events will most likely occur due to osmosis?

  1. There will be no net movement of water or salt.
  2. Water will move into the cell, causing it to swell and potentially burst.
  3. Water will move out of the cell, causing it to shrink.
  4. Salt will rapidly move into the cell until equilibrium is reached.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

In a hypertonic solution, the fluid outside the cell has a higher solute concentration than the inside of the cell, so water moves out by osmosis. As water leaves, the red blood cell shrinks; swelling and bursting would occur in a hypotonic solution instead.

78. Question (Challenging)

Which of the following bones is a major component of the human appendicular skeleton?

  1. Sacrum
  2. Cranium
  3. Femur
  4. Sternum
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the limbs and the girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton, so the femur is part of this division. The sternum, cranium, and sacrum belong to the axial skeleton instead.

79. Question

Which of the following cellular organelles is primarily responsible for generating energy in the form of ATP?

  1. Mitochondrion
  2. Ribosome
  3. Endoplasmic reticulum
  4. Golgi apparatus
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The mitochondrion produces most of the cell’s ATP through cellular respiration, which is why it is commonly described as the cell’s powerhouse. Although ribosomes may seem plausible, they function in protein synthesis rather than energy production.

80. Question

In a clinical trial for a new blood pressure medication, half of the participants are given a sugar pill instead of the actual drug. What is the primary purpose of this procedure?

  1. To determine the potential side effects of sugar on blood pressure.
  2. To ensure all participants receive some form of treatment.
  3. To increase the statistical variance of the outcomes.
  4. To establish a baseline to compare the actual medication’s effects against.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The sugar pill functions as a placebo, creating a control group that can be compared with the group receiving the real medication. This helps researchers judge whether the medication itself is responsible for any observed changes in blood pressure.

81. Question

In a certain species of plant, tall height (T) is dominant over short height (t). If two heterozygous tall plants (Tt) are crossed, what is the probability that their offspring will exhibit the short phenotype?

  1. 75%
  2. 0%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Crossing Tt with Tt produces the possible genotypes TT, Tt, Tt, and tt. Only the tt genotype shows the short phenotype, so 1 out of 4 offspring, or 25%, would be expected to be short.

82. Question (Challenging)

Which of the following statements best describes the formation of a covalent bond?

  1. Protons are exchanged between two adjacent atomic nuclei.
  2. A lattice of positive ions is surrounded by a “sea” of mobile electrons.
  3. Two atoms share one or more pairs of valence electrons.
  4. Electrons are completely transferred from a metal to a nonmetal.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Covalent bonds form when atoms share pairs of valence electrons to achieve more stable electron arrangements. Complete electron transfer describes ionic bonding, while a sea of mobile electrons is associated with metallic bonding.

83. Question

Which of the following practices is considered the single most effective method for preventing the spread of healthcare-associated infections?

  1. Isolating all patients upon hospital admission
  2. Wearing a face mask at all times
  3. Performing proper hand hygiene
  4. Sterilizing all patient room furniture daily
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

Proper hand hygiene is the most important routine practice for interrupting the spread of pathogens in healthcare settings. Masks, isolation, and cleaning can be important in specific situations, but they do not replace hand hygiene as the basic infection control measure.

84. Question

A patient receives a vaccine containing a weakened form of a virus. This prompts the patient’s immune system to produce antibodies. Which type of immunity does this represent?

  1. Natural active immunity
  2. Artificial active immunity
  3. Natural passive immunity
  4. Artificial passive immunity
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

A vaccine is an artificial exposure to an antigen that stimulates the patient’s own immune system to make antibodies, making this artificial active immunity. Natural active immunity occurs after exposure to a pathogen in the natural environment rather than through vaccination.

85. Question

Which of the following activities is considered an example of primary disease prevention?

  1. Administering the influenza vaccine to healthy adults
  2. Prescribing physical therapy after a stroke
  3. Screening for high blood pressure at a health fair
  4. Performing a biopsy on a suspicious skin lesion
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Primary prevention focuses on stopping illness before it begins, so giving a vaccine to healthy adults is the best example. Screening for high blood pressure is secondary prevention because it detects a condition early rather than preventing it from developing in the first place.

86. Question

An atom of an unknown element has 15 protons, 16 neutrons, and 18 electrons. Which of the following correctly describes this particle?

  1. It is a cation with a net charge of +3.
  2. It is an isotope with an atomic number of 16.
  3. It is an anion with a net charge of -3.
  4. It is a neutral atom with an atomic mass of 31.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

The particle has 15 protons and 18 electrons, meaning it has three more negative charges than positive charges. This gives it a net charge of -3, so it is an anion rather than a cation or a neutral atom.

87. Question (Challenging)

Which division of the nervous system is primarily responsible for the “fight or flight” response, characterized by increased heart rate and dilated pupils?

  1. Parasympathetic nervous system
  2. Sympathetic nervous system
  3. Somatic nervous system
  4. Central nervous system
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The sympathetic nervous system activates the body during stress by increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and preparing the body for action. The parasympathetic nervous system generally has the opposite role, supporting rest and digestion.

88. Question

Which of the following best describes the nature of a covalent bond between two atoms?

  1. Protons are shared between the nuclei of two atoms.
  2. Two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons.
  3. One atom transfers electrons completely to the other atom.
  4. Positively and negatively charged ions are attracted to each other.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

A covalent bond forms when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons to become more stable. Complete electron transfer and attraction between charged ions describe ionic bonding, not covalent bonding.

89. Question

Which gland is often called the “master gland” because it controls many other endocrine glands?

  1. Adrenal gland
  2. Pineal gland
  3. Thyroid gland
  4. Pituitary gland
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

The pituitary gland is known as the “master gland” because it secretes hormones that regulate several other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland affects metabolism, but it does not control as many endocrine glands as the pituitary does.

90. Question

Within the nephron of the kidney, the initial filtration of blood plasma takes place in which of the following structures?

  1. Glomerulus
  2. Collecting duct
  3. Loop of Henle
  4. Distal convoluted tubule
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

The glomerulus is the capillary network where blood pressure forces fluid and small solutes out of the blood to begin urine formation. The Loop of Henle acts later in the nephron to help concentrate urine and reabsorb water and solutes.

91. Question

A liquid solution has a pH of 3.2. Which of the following terms best describes this solution?

  1. Neutral
  2. Weakly basic
  3. Strongly alkaline
  4. Acidic
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

A solution with a pH below 7 is classified as acidic, and a pH of 3.2 clearly falls in that range. A neutral solution has a pH of exactly 7, while basic or alkaline solutions have pH values above 7.

92. Question

Which cellular process allows water to move across a semipermeable membrane?

  1. Osmosis
  2. Active transport
  3. Filtration
  4. Diffusion
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane, usually toward the area with the higher solute concentration. Diffusion is a broader process involving particle movement, but osmosis specifically refers to water movement across such a membrane.

93. Question

A scientist is investigating a new drug intended to lower cholesterol. The study includes a placebo group. What is the primary purpose of including this placebo group in the experimental design?

  1. To dilute the medication to test different dosage strengths over time.
  2. To eliminate the need for collecting data during the study.
  3. To increase the number of participants and improve statistical power.
  4. To compare the effects of the drug against no active treatment.
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

A placebo group provides a comparison group that does not receive the active drug, helping researchers determine whether changes are truly caused by the medication. This also helps account for improvement that may occur because participants believe they are being treated.

94. Question

Which part of the neuron receives incoming signals from other nerve cells?

  1. Dendrite
  2. Myelin sheath
  3. Synapse
  4. Axon
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Dendrites are the branched extensions of a neuron that receive signals from other nerve cells and direct them toward the cell body. The axon is involved in sending signals away from the neuron, so it does not fit the receiving role described in the question.

95. Question

Which of the following types of connective tissue attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

  1. Adipose
  2. Cartilage
  3. Ligament
  4. Tendon
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Tendons are fibrous connective tissues that anchor skeletal muscles to bones, allowing muscle contractions to move the skeleton. Ligaments are often confused with tendons, but ligaments connect bone to bone at joints.

96. Question

A researcher sets up an experiment to test how different concentrations of a topical antibiotic affect the growth of a bacterial culture. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?

  1. The type of bacteria used
  2. The growth of the bacterial culture
  3. The concentration of the antibiotic
  4. The temperature of the incubation chamber
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

The dependent variable is the measured outcome, which here is how much the bacterial culture grows. The antibiotic concentration is the independent variable because it is the factor being changed by the researcher.

97. Question

Which of the following organs is primarily responsible for the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream?

  1. Liver
  2. Stomach
  3. Large intestine
  4. Small intestine
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: D.

Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine, whose villi and microvilli greatly increase surface area for transferring nutrients into the bloodstream. The stomach helps break down food, especially proteins, but it is not the main site of nutrient absorption.

98. Question

During the generation of an action potential in a neuron, what event is immediately responsible for the rapid depolarization phase?

  1. The rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell
  2. The activation of the sodium-potassium pump
  3. The opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
  4. The binding of neurotransmitters to postsynaptic receptors
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: A.

Rapid depolarization occurs when voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions quickly enter the neuron, making the inside of the cell more positive. Potassium channel opening is more closely associated with repolarization after depolarization has occurred.

99. Question (Challenging)

A patient receives an injection of pre-formed antibodies after a potential exposure to rabies. Which type of immunity does this injection provide?

  1. Natural passive immunity
  2. Artificial active immunity
  3. Artificial passive immunity
  4. Natural active immunity
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: C.

This is artificial passive immunity because the antibodies are given through a medical intervention and are already formed rather than produced by the patient’s immune system. Active immunity would require the patient’s own body to make antibodies after exposure to an antigen.

100. Question

What happens to the pH of a solution when the concentration of hydrogen ions (H⁺) increases?

  1. The pH stays the same
  2. The pH decreases
  3. The solution becomes neutral
  4. The pH increases
Show Answer & Rationale

Correct Answer: B.

pH and hydrogen ion concentration have an inverse relationship, so increasing H⁺ concentration makes a solution more acidic and lowers its pH. This is why the pH decreases rather than increases when more hydrogen ions are present.

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